Question 1: Arrange the sequence of post-mortem changes in putrefaction (earliest to latest):

(A) Marbling appearance

(B) Green discoloration of right iliac fossa

(C) Gas bloating and purging

(D) Black discoloration and liquefaction

Choose the correct order:

• A. B, A, C, D
• B. A, B, C, D
• C. C, D, A, B
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 2: Arrange the steps in GC-MS analysis of volatile poisons in forensic toxicology:

(A) Ionization and fragmentation

(B) Sample injection and vaporization

(C) Mass filtering and detection

(D) Chromatographic separation

• A. B, D, A, C
• B. A, B, C, D
• C. D, C, B, A
• D. C, A, D, B

Question 3: Arrange the ossification sequence for age estimation in adolescents (earliest to latest fusion):

(A) Distal radius

(B) Iliac crest

(C) Medial clavicle

(D) Ischial tuberosity

• A. A, D, B, C
• B. C, A, D, B
• C. A, B, D, C
• D. D, C, A, B

Question 4: Arrange the sequence of events in internal ballistics of a firearm:

(A) Primer ignition

(B) Propellant combustion

(C) Bullet engraving by rifling

(D) Pressure peak and acceleration

• A. A, B, D, C
• B. B, A, C, D
• C. C, D, A, B
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 5: Identify the Schedule H1 drugs (narcotics/psychotropics) from the following:

(A) Alprazolam

(B) Codeine phosphate

(C) Tramadol

(D) Paracetamol

(E) Ketamine

• A. A, C, E Only
• B. B, D Only
• C. A, B, C Only
• D. C, E Only

Question 6: In capillary electrophoresis for DNA profiling, which factors improve resolution of STR alleles?

(A) High voltage application

(B) Long capillary length

(C) Low ionic strength buffer

(D) Polymer concentration increase

• A. A, B Only
• B. B, D Only
• C. A, C Only
• D. B, C, D Only

Question 7: Arrange the sequence for development of latent fingerprints using cyanoacrylate fuming:

(A) Humidity chamber placement

(B) Fuming with superglue

(C) Dye staining enhancement

(D) Alternate light source visualization

• A. A, B, C, D
• B. B, A, D, C
• C. C, D, A, B
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 8: Which statements about postmortem livor mortis are correct?

(A) Fixed after 8-12 hours

(B) Can be blanched by pressure early on

(C) Absent in hanging cases

(D) Indicates position of body at death

• A. A, B, D Only
• B. B, C Only
• C. A, C, D Only
• D. C, D Only

Question 9: In questioned documents, which are indicators of disguised writing?

(A) Increased tremor and hesitation

(B) Consistent slant alteration

(C) Unnatural pen lifts

(D) Speed reduction with poor line quality

• A. A, C, D Only
• B. B, C Only
• C. A, B, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 10: Match List-I with List-II (Poisons and their primary target):

List-I

(A) Paraquat

(B) Ricin

(C) Botulinum toxin

(D) Strychnine

List-II

(I) Neuromuscular junction

(II) Glycine receptor antagonist

(III) Pulmonary fibrosis

(IV) Protein synthesis inhibition

• A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 11: In forensic serology, which statements regarding Bombay phenotype are correct?

(A) Individuals lack H antigen

(B) They appear as O group in routine ABO typing

(C) Anti-H is naturally present in their serum

(D) They can donate blood safely to any ABO group

• A. A, B, C Only
• B. B, C, D Only
• C. A, C Only
• D. A, B, D Only

Question 12: Arrange the sequence of events in ricochet of a bullet:

(A) Loss of gyroscopic stability

(B) Yaw increase after impact

(C) Deflection from surface

(D) Reduction in velocity

• A. C, D, B, A
• B. A, B, C, D
• C. D, C, A, B
• D. B, A, D, C

Question 13: Which are reliable indicators for differentiation between ante-mortem and post-mortem burns?

(A) Presence of soot in trachea

(B) Hyperaemia at burn margin

(C) Cherry-red coloration of blood

(D) Blister formation with vital reaction

• A. A, B, D Only
• B. B, C Only
• C. A, C, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 14: Match List-I with List-II (Hair characteristics):

List-I

(A) Mongoloid hair

(B) Negroid hair

(C) Caucasoid hair

(D) Australoid hair

List-II

(I) Oval cross-section, dense pigment

(II) Flattened cross-section, tight curls

(III) Round cross-section, moderate pigment

(IV) Intermediate oval, wavy to curly

• A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• D. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 15: In FTIR spectroscopy of drugs, which functional group shows strong absorption around 1700 cm⁻¹?

• A. C–H stretch
• B. C=O carbonyl
• C. O–H stretch
• D. N–H bend

Question 16: Arrange the sequence for development of latent fingerprints using ninhydrin:

(A) Heating at 80°C

(B) Spraying/dipping ninhydrin solution

(C) Humidity exposure (optional acceleration)

(D) Development of Ruhemann’s purple

• A. B, A, C, D
• B. B, C, A, D
• C. A, B, D, C
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 17: Which statements are correct regarding rigor mortis?

(A) Appears first in smaller muscles

(B) Maximum at 12 hours in temperate climate

(C) Disappears due to autolysis

(D) Can be used to estimate time since death up to 36–48 hours

• A. A, B, C Only
• B. B, C, D Only
• C. A, C, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 18: In tool mark examination, class characteristics include:

(A) Manufacturer’s microscopic imperfections

(B) General size and shape of tool edge

(C) Individual striation pattern

(D) Wear patterns unique to one tool

• A. B Only
• B. A, C Only
• C. B, D Only
• D. A, D Only

Question 19: Arrange putrefactive sequence of internal organs (most to least resistant):

(A) Heart

(B) Prostate/uterus

(C) Kidney

(D) Lung

(E) Brain

• A. D, E, C, A, B
• B. E, D, C, A, B
• C. B, A, C, D, E
• D. A, B, C, D, E

Question 20: Which is the most sensitive presumptive test for blood in forensic scene examination?

• A. Luminol
• B. Tetramethylbenzidine (TMB)
• C. Phenolphthalein (Kastle-Meyer)
• D. Orthotolidine

Question 21: In GC analysis of fire debris, which hydrocarbons are characteristic of gasoline?

(A) n-Alkanes C5–C12

(B) Toluene, ethylbenzene, xylenes

(C) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

(D) n-Alkanes >C20

• A. A, B Only
• B. B, C Only
• C. A, C Only
• D. All of the above

Question 22: Match List-I with List-II (Forensic entomology insects):

List-I

(A) Calliphoridae

(B) Sarcophagidae

(C) Dermestidae

(D) Silphidae

List-II

(I) Carrion beetles – advanced decay

(II) Blow flies – first colonizers

(III) Flesh flies – larviparous

(IV) Skin beetles – dry remains

• A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Question 23: Which characteristics are typical of indented writing recovery using ESDA?

(A) Works best on top sheet of carbonless paper

(B) Detects impressions up to 7–10 sheets below

(C) Requires vacuum hold-down

(D) Produces permanent black image

• A. B, C Only
• B. A, D Only
• C. B, C, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 24: In postmortem toxicology, which substance shows postmortem redistribution most significantly?

• A. Ethanol
• B. Diazepam
• C. Digoxin
• D. Morphine

Question 25: Arrange sequence of radiographic age estimation in adults:

(A) Pubic symphysis morphology

(B) Sternal rib end changes

(C) Medial clavicle fusion

(D) Sacroiliac joint degeneration

• A. C, A, B, D
• B. A, B, D, C
• C. C, A, D, B
• D. D, B, A, C

Question 26: Which are correct regarding GSR (gunshot residue) particle morphology?

(A) Spherical particles indicate discharge

(B) Irregular particles usually environmental

(C) Pb-Ba-Sb composition is highly characteristic

(D) All GSR particles are >10 μm

• A. A, B, C Only
• B. B, C, D Only
• C. A, C Only
• D. All of the above

Question 27: In questioned documents, which ink aging parameter is most reliable with modern gel pens?

• A. Solvent evaporation rate
• B. Dye degradation products
• C. Resin cross-linking
• D. 2-phenoxyethanol quantification

Question 28: Match List-I with List-II (Poison antidotes):

List-I

(A) Organophosphate

(B) Cyanide

(C) Heparin

(D) Methanol

List-II

(I) Hydroxocobalamin

(II) Atropine + Pralidoxime

(III) Protamine sulphate

(IV) Fomepizole

• A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• D. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 29: Which statements about diatoms test in drowning are correct?

(A) Positive in dry drowning

(B) Diatoms must be acid-digest resistant

(C) Bone marrow is preferred sample

(D) Test is specific and confirmatory

• A. B, C Only
• B. A, D Only
• C. B, C, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 30: Arrange sequence in SEM-EDX analysis of GSR:

(A) Backscattered electron imaging

(B) Automated particle detection

(C) X-ray spectrum acquisition

(D) Morphological classification

• A. A, B, D, C
• B. B, A, C, D
• C. C, D, A, B
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 31: Which is the most accurate method for estimation of time since death in first 24 hours?

• A. Algor mortis with Henssge nomogram
• B. Rigor mortis progression
• C) Vitreous potassium increase
• D) Hypostasis fixation

Question 32: In DNA profiling, which STR locus shows highest heterozygosity in Indian population?

• A. D8S1179
• B. D21S11
• C. FGA
• D. D18S51

Question 33: Which fibers dissolve completely in 70% sulfuric acid?

(A) Cotton

(B) Wool

(C) Nylon 6,6

(D) Polyester

• A. A, B Only
• B. B, C Only
• C. A, C Only
• D. C, D Only

Question 34: Match List-I with List-II (Glass fracture types):

List-I

(A) Radial fracture

(B) Concentric fracture

(C) Wallner lines

(D) Hackle marks

List-II

(I) Stress marks indicating direction of force

(II) Extend from point of impact outward

(III) Form parallel to advancing crack front

(IV) Form perpendicular to radial fractures

• A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 35: Which is NOT a feature of entrance gunshot wound from contact shot?

• A. Abrasion collar
• B. Grease ring
• C. Flame burn and soot deposition
• D. Stellate laceration

Question 36: In HPLC-MS/MS for benzodiazepines, which ionization mode is preferred?

• A. EI (electron impact)
• B. APCI (atmospheric pressure chemical ionization)
• C. ESI positive mode
• D. Negative ion mode

Question 37: Which statements about adipocere formation are correct?

(A) Requires warm moist anaerobic environment

(B) Hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fats

(C) Prevents skeletonization

(D) Occurs fastest in waterlogged graves

• A. A, B, C Only
• B. B, C, D Only
• C. A, B, D Only
• D. All of the above

Question 38: Arrange sequence of TLC visualization for plant poisons:

(A) Spray with Dragendorff’s reagent

(B) Run plate in mobile phase

(C) Spot sample and standards

(D) Examine under UV 254 nm

• A. C, B, D, A
• B. A, C, B, D
• C. D, B, C, A
• D. B, C, D, A

Question 39: Which is the gold standard confirmatory technique for semen identification in forensic labs?

• A. Acid phosphatase quantitative assay
• B. Microscopic identification of spermatozoa
• C. RSID-Semen lateral flow test
• D. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) immunochromatography

Question 40: In strangulation, which finding is most indicative of ligature strangulation over manual?

• A. Petechiae on conjunctiva
• B. Horizontal ligature mark with parchmentization

• C. Thyroid cartilage fracture
• D. Hyoid bone fracture

Question 41: Which parameters affect bullet yaw in terminal ballistics?

(A) Bullet length-to-diameter ratio

(B) Impact velocity

(C) Target tissue density

(D) Bullet nose shape

• A. A, B, D Only
• B. B, C, D Only
• C. A, B, C, D
• D. A, C Only

Question 42: Match List-I with List-II (Questioned document instruments):

List-I

(A) Video Spectral Comparator

(B) Electrostatic Detection Apparatus

(C) Micro-spectrophotometer

(D) Raman spectrometer

List-II

(I) Indented writing

(II) Ink differentiation by IR/fluorescence

(III) Non-destructive color analysis

(IV) Molecular structure of pigments

• A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• D. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 43: Which is the most common pattern of fingerprint minutiae used for individualization?

• A. Ridge ending
• B. Bifurcation
• C. Lake
• D. Dot

Question 44: In postmortem interval estimation, which method has the narrowest confidence interval in early phase?

• A. Vitreous humor potassium
• B. Henssge’s rectal temperature method
• C. Livor mortis color transition
• D. Rigor mortis jaw-to-toe progression

Question 45: Which gas is most responsible for explosion risk during exhumation of decomposed bodies?

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Hydrogen sulphide
• C. Methane
• D. Ammonia

Question 46: In LC-MS/MS, which transition is monitored for confirmation of cocaine?

• A. 304 → 182
• B. 290 → 168
• C. 303 → 185
• D. 318 → 196

Question 47: Which is NOT a criterion for individual identification using ear prints?

• A. Helix and antihelix shape
• B. Tragus and antitragus morphology
• C. Darwin’s tubercle presence
• D. Blood group antigen expression

Question 48: Arrange sequence of events in explosive train of ammunition:

(A) Primer detonation

(B) Ignition of propellant

(C) Detonation of main charge

(D) Projectile launch

• A. A, B, D, C
• B. A, B, C, D
• C. C, B, A, D
• D. D, C, B, A

Question 49: Which plant poison causes cholinergic crisis with pinpoint pupils and SLUDGE syndrome?

• A. Datura stramonium
• B. Abrus precatorius
• C. Nerium oleander
• D. Physostigma venenosum

Question 50: In forensic odontology, which feature is most useful for positive identification?

• A. Number of teeth present
• B. Unique restorations and malpositions
• C. Angle of mandible
• D. Palatal rugae pattern