| # | Book Title | Author(s) | Notability |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Collected Cases of Injustice Rectified | Song Ci | First forensic manual in history |
| 2 | Criminal Investigation | Hans Gross | Foundational work on modern criminalistics |
| 3 | Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology | J.B. Mukherjee | Standard Indian reference |
| 4 | Medicolegal Investigation of Death | Werner Spitz & Russell Fisher | Core forensic pathology text |
| 5 | Forensic Science in Criminal Investigation and Trials | B.R. Sharma | Most cited forensic science book in India |
| 6 | Handbook of Forensic Pathology | Vincent Di Maio & Suzanna Dana | Detailed guide on pathology in forensics |
| 7 | Forensic Science: An Introduction | Stuart H. James & Jon Nordby | Modern forensic overview |
| 8 | Quantitative-Qualitative Friction Ridge Analysis | David R. Ashbaugh | Fingerprint science authority |
| 9 | The Principles of Forensic Medicine | Apurba Nandy | Common Indian academic reference |
| 10 | Forensic Dentistry | Norman Pretty | Classic in forensic odontology |
| 11 | Forensic Psychology | David Canter | Behavioral analysis in legal context |
| 12 | The Poisoner’s Handbook | Deborah Blum | History of forensic toxicology |
| 13 | Forensic Ballistics in Criminal Justice | Iqbal Singh | Indian perspective on firearms |
| 14 | The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology | K.S. Narayan Reddy | Standard Indian medical-forensic book |
| 15 | A Dictionary of Forensic Science | Suzanne Bell | Oxford reference of forensic terms |
| 16 | The Killer of Little Shepherds | Douglas Starr | Chronicle of early forensic criminology |
| 17 | Forensic Science: The Basics | Kathy Mirakovits | Concise, readable forensic introduction |
| 18 | Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology | Anil Aggrawal | Indian legal and academic text |
| 19 | Textbook of Medical Jurisprudence and Toxicology | Jaisingh Modi | Classic forensic law text in India |
| 20 | Crime Scene Investigation | Aric W. Dutelle | Procedural guide used in CSI training |
Categories
Mock Test 33
Categories
Mock Test 32
Question 1: In forensic anthropology, which measurement is most reliable in determining sex from a skull?
- A. Interorbital width
- B. Mastoid process size
- C. Nasal height
- D. Sagittal suture length
Answer
Answer: B. Mastoid process size
Explanation: The mastoid process is typically larger and more pronounced in males. It serves as one of the most sexually dimorphic features in cranial assessment.
Question 2: Which chemical method can differentiate between semen and other protein-containing body fluids?
- A. Benzidine test
- B. Acid phosphatase test
- C. Takayama test
- D. Luminol test
Answer
Answer: B. Acid phosphatase test
Explanation: The acid phosphatase enzyme is found in high concentration in semen, helping distinguish it from other bodily fluids like saliva or sweat.
Question 3: What aspect of handwriting is least likely to change under conscious control?
- A. Letter height
- B. Writing slant
- C. Pen lifts
- D. Line quality
Answer
Answer: C. Pen lifts
Explanation: Pen lifts and connecting strokes are often subconscious and difficult to imitate or alter, making them reliable features in handwriting comparison.
Question 4: In forensic toxicology, which metabolite is used to confirm heroin use?
- A. Codeine
- B. Morphine
- C. 6-Monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM)
- D. Thebaine
Answer
Answer: C. 6-Monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM)
Explanation: 6-MAM is a unique intermediate metabolite of heroin and is not found in users of other opiates, making it a definitive marker of heroin ingestion.
Question 5: In a forensic DNA mixture, the presence of more than two alleles at a locus indicates:
- A. Degraded DNA
- B. PCR contamination
- C. Multiple contributors
- D. Homozygosity
Answer
Answer: C. Multiple contributors
Explanation: More than two alleles at a single locus suggest the DNA sample originates from more than one person, necessitating mixture interpretation strategies.
Question 6: Which pattern of bloodstain suggests repeated blows to a wet surface with a blunt object?
- A. Passive stains
- B. Transfer patterns
- C. Cast-off stains
- D. Impact spatter
Answer
Answer: D. Impact spatter
Explanation: Repeated blunt force blows cause blood to radiate outward in a radial pattern, producing fine impact spatters around the point of contact.
Question 7: In digital forensics, the term “slack space” refers to:
- A. Unused sectors of a hard drive
- B. Encrypted partitions
- C. Space between the end of a file and end of a cluster
- D. Virtual memory allocation
Answer
Answer: C. Space between the end of a file and end of a cluster
Explanation: Slack space can contain remnants of previously deleted files or fragments, which may be valuable in digital evidence recovery.
Question 8: What is the significance of breechface marks in firearms examination?
- A. They indicate the direction of bullet rotation
- B. They are unique to each cartridge type
- C. They help identify the firearm used by matching markings on the cartridge case
- D. They determine caliber of ammunition
Answer
Answer: C. They help identify the firearm used by matching markings on the cartridge case
Explanation: Breechface marks are impressed onto the primer or base of a cartridge case when the firearm is fired and can be compared microscopically for firearm identification.
Question 9: Which of the following bones provides the most accurate stature estimation in forensic anthropology?
- A. Humerus
- B. Radius
- C. Femur
- D. Tibia
Answer
Answer: C. Femur
Explanation: The femur, being the longest and strongest bone in the human body, has a well-established correlation with overall height, making it ideal for stature estimation.
Question 10: Which of the following is not a presumptive test for blood?
- A. Kastle-Meyer test
- B. Luminol test
- C. Teichmann test
- D. Hemastix
Answer
Answer: C. Teichmann test
Explanation: The Teichmann test is a confirmatory microcrystal test for blood, not a presumptive one. Presumptive tests suggest presence, while confirmatory tests prove it.
Question 11: Which type of fire debris sample is most likely to retain ignitable residues for arson analysis?
- A. Charred wood
- B. Water-soaked fabric
- C. Painted metal
- D. Glass fragments
Answer
Answer: A. Charred wood
Explanation: Porous and absorbent materials like charred wood can trap and retain ignitable liquid residues, making them valuable in fire debris analysis using GC-MS.
Question 12: Which type of evidence is most susceptible to contamination due to touch DNA?
- A. Bloodstained cloth
- B. Bullet casing
- C. Semen-stained swab
- D. Burnt bones
Answer
Answer: B. Bullet casing
Explanation: Touch DNA evidence, such as skin cells from handling, is often present in trace amounts on objects like bullet casings, making them highly prone to contamination if not properly handled.
Question 13: In forensic entomology, which factor most influences the developmental rate of blowfly larvae?
- A. Color of the corpse
- B. Season of the year
- C. Ambient temperature
- D. Geographic latitude
Answer
Answer: C. Ambient temperature
Explanation: The rate of insect development is temperature-dependent; higher temperatures accelerate larval development, making temperature a critical factor for postmortem interval estimation.
Question 14: In ink analysis of questioned documents, which technique helps identify ink components even after aging?
- A. Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
- B. Gas Chromatography
- C. Raman Spectroscopy
- D. UV-visible spectrophotometry
Answer
Answer: C. Raman Spectroscopy
Explanation: Raman spectroscopy is non-destructive, highly specific, and suitable for detecting organic and inorganic components of aged ink without sample extraction.
Question 15: In forensic ballistics, what does the presence of stellate tearing around an entrance wound typically indicate?
- A. Distant-range gunshot
- B. Contact shot over bone
- C. Ricocheted bullet impact
- D. Shotgun discharge
Answer
Answer: B. Contact shot over bone
Explanation: Stellate tearing is caused by gases expanding beneath the skin during a close-contact gunshot, especially over hard surfaces like skulls, producing star-shaped lacerations.
Question 16: Which gene is most commonly targeted for sex determination in forensic DNA profiling?
- A. SRY gene on Y chromosome
- B. Amelogenin gene
- C. D13S317
- D. TPOX gene
Answer
Answer: B. Amelogenin gene
Explanation: The amelogenin gene has length polymorphisms on the X and Y chromosomes, making it a reliable marker for determining biological sex in forensic DNA analysis.
Question 17: What is the primary utility of the McCrone method in forensic analysis?
- A. Identification of drug residues
- B. Firearm discharge analysis
- C. Polarized light microscopy of fibers
- D. Ink age estimation
Answer
Answer: C. Polarized light microscopy of fibers
Explanation: The McCrone method involves detailed examination of micro-evidence, such as synthetic or natural fibers, using polarized light microscopy for identification and comparison.
Question 18: In forensic odontology, the Gustafson method is used for:
- A. Determining sex based on dental arch
- B. Age estimation in adults using tooth wear
- C. Identification from bite marks
- D. Analyzing dental fluorosis
Answer
Answer: B. Age estimation in adults using tooth wear
Explanation: The Gustafson method relies on physiological changes such as secondary dentin deposition, root resorption, and attrition to estimate age in adult teeth.
Question 19: Which forensic method is most effective in confirming species origin of biological evidence?
- A. Immunodiffusion test
- B. ABO blood grouping
- C. Precipitin test
- D. Electrophoresis
Answer
Answer: C. Precipitin test
Explanation: The precipitin test detects species-specific antigens using antisera and is effective in determining whether a sample is human or animal in origin.
Question 20: Which software tool is most appropriate for analyzing deleted files in a forensic disk image?
- A. FTK Imager
- B. Autopsy (Sleuth Kit)
- C. Cellebrite UFED
- D. Wireshark
Answer
Answer: B. Autopsy (Sleuth Kit)
Explanation: Autopsy is a GUI-based tool built on the Sleuth Kit framework, widely used for recovering and analyzing deleted files and disk structures during digital investigations.
Question 21: Which test would best differentiate between synthetic and natural fibers in forensic analysis?
- A. Acid digestion test
- B. Refractive index comparison
- C. Burn test with odor observation
- D. Cross-sectional microscopy
Answer
Answer: C. Burn test with odor observation
Explanation: The burn test helps differentiate fibers based on their burning behavior and odor—natural fibers like cotton smell like burning paper, while synthetics may melt and emit chemical odors.
Question 22: In forensic anthropology, which bone feature provides the highest accuracy for sex estimation in adults?
- A. Femoral head diameter
- B. Pubic symphysis morphology
- C. Mandibular angle
- D. Nasal aperture width
Answer
Answer: B. Pubic symphysis morphology
Explanation: The pelvis, particularly the pubic symphysis, offers the most reliable morphological indicators for determining sex due to pronounced differences between male and female anatomy.
Question 23: Which of the following best explains why LC-QTOF-MS is preferred in non-targeted toxicological screening?
- A. It has better resolution than GC-FID
- B. It enables compound separation without chromatography
- C. It allows for exact mass measurement of unknowns
- D. It avoids the need for sample extraction
Answer
Answer: C. It allows for exact mass measurement of unknowns
Explanation: LC-QTOF-MS (Quadrupole Time-of-Flight) allows for high-resolution, accurate mass detection, ideal for identifying unknown or emerging toxicants without pre-selection.
Question 24: What does a high number of alleles with low frequencies at an STR locus indicate in forensic genetics?
- A. Low discrimination power
- B. Presence of null alleles
- C. High polymorphism and individualization potential
- D. Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium
Answer
Answer: C. High polymorphism and individualization potential
Explanation: A large number of rare alleles increases the power of discrimination at an STR locus, enhancing its utility for individual identification in forensic DNA profiling.
Question 25: Which forensic principle is best demonstrated when a criminal leaves a partial footprint at a crime scene?
- A. Principle of exchange
- B. Principle of individuality
- C. Principle of probability
- D. Principle of reconstruction
Answer
Answer: A. Principle of exchange
Explanation: Locard’s Exchange Principle states that contact between two surfaces will result in a mutual transfer of trace evidence, such as partial footprints or fibers.
Question 26: Which radiological method is most effective in identifying metallic foreign objects embedded in skeletal remains?
- A. MRI scan
- B. CT scan
- C. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
- D. Infrared thermography
Answer
Answer: B. CT scan
Explanation: CT scanning provides high-resolution, 3D visualization of internal structures and is highly effective in detecting and localizing metallic foreign objects in bones.
Question 27: In digital forensics, the primary reason for performing a hash verification after data acquisition is:
- A. To analyze malware activity
- B. To compress the forensic image
- C. To validate data integrity
- D. To create encryption keys
Answer
Answer: C. To validate data integrity
Explanation: Hash values (e.g., MD5, SHA-256) are used to ensure that the data acquired during forensic imaging remains unchanged throughout analysis and is admissible in court.
Question 28: Which property of glass is most relevant when performing refractive index matching during forensic comparison?
- A. Optical clarity
- B. Thermal conductivity
- C. Density
- D. Dispersion
Answer
Answer: D. Dispersion
Explanation: Dispersion affects how glass interacts with light across different wavelengths, influencing its refractive index. Matching dispersion curves can help differentiate similar glass types.
Question 29: What is the primary role of ICP-MS in forensic elemental analysis?
- A. To detect volatile organic compounds
- B. To determine mineralogical structure
- C. To quantify trace elements with high sensitivity
- D. To image latent fingerprints
Answer
Answer: C. To quantify trace elements with high sensitivity
Explanation: Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS) is capable of detecting ultra-trace levels of metals and other elements, making it ideal for forensic soil, glass, and toxicological analysis.
Question 30: In forensic serology, a false negative result in a presumptive test for blood may occur due to:
- A. High salt concentration
- B. Presence of oxidizing agents
- C. Diluted sample
- D. Presence of hemoglobin variants
Answer
Answer: C. Diluted sample
Explanation: A highly diluted bloodstain may contain insufficient hemoglobin to produce a detectable color change in presumptive tests like Kastle-Meyer, resulting in false negatives.
Question 31: Which forensic imaging technique provides a non-invasive way to visualize ink differences in altered documents?
- A. UV fluorescence imaging
- B. Infrared reflectography
- C. X-ray fluorescence
- D. Raman microscopy
Answer
Answer: B. Infrared reflectography
Explanation: Infrared reflectography allows for differentiation of ink types based on their absorption and reflectance in the IR region, making it useful for detecting alterations or obliterations in documents.
Question 32: Which of the following is the most specific confirmatory test for identifying cocaine in a seized powder?
- A. Duquenois-Levine test
- B. Gas Chromatography with Flame Ionization Detector (GC-FID)
- C. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
- D. Marquis reagent test
Answer
Answer: C. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
Explanation: GC-MS provides both separation and structural identification of compounds, making it the gold standard confirmatory test for controlled substances like cocaine.
Question 33: In forensic pathology, the presence of frothy fluid in the airways is most indicative of:
- A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Drowning
- D. Asphyxiation by smothering
Answer
Answer: C. Drowning
Explanation: Frothy fluid in the lungs and airways is a classical sign of drowning due to the mixing of water and surfactant in the lungs, forming stable foam.
Question 34: In forensic linguistics, idiolect refers to:
- A. The regional language variety of a speaker
- B. A speaker’s unique and individual language use
- C. Slang terms used in criminal communication
- D. Dialect shared by a group
Answer
Answer: B. A speaker’s unique and individual language use
Explanation: An idiolect is the personal language style of an individual, encompassing vocabulary, syntax, and grammar patterns, which can assist in author identification in forensic cases.
Question 35: In forensic psychology, the M’Naghten rule is primarily used to assess:
- A. Competency to stand trial
- B. Mental illness classification
- C. Criminal responsibility based on insanity
- D. Reliability of eyewitness memory
Answer
Answer: C. Criminal responsibility based on insanity
Explanation: The M’Naghten rule evaluates whether a defendant understood the nature or wrongfulness of their actions due to mental illness, forming a legal standard for insanity.
Question 36: The formation of an adipocere (grave wax) body is promoted under which conditions?
- A. Dry, hot, and ventilated
- B. Cold and open-air exposure
- C. Moist, anaerobic, and sealed environments
- D. Rapid desiccation and exposure to sunlight
Answer
Answer: C. Moist, anaerobic, and sealed environments
Explanation: Adipocere forms through hydrolysis of fat tissues in moist, oxygen-poor environments, commonly seen in submerged or buried bodies.
Question 37: Which latent fingerprint development method is best suited for wet, non-porous surfaces?
- A. Ninhydrin
- B. Silver nitrate
- C. Small particle reagent (SPR)
- D. Iodine fuming
Answer
Answer: C. Small particle reagent (SPR)
Explanation: SPR is used on wet, non-porous surfaces and adheres to the fatty components of fingerprint residue, making it ideal for submerged items.
Question 38: The firing pin impression on a cartridge primer is most useful for:
- A. Determining bullet trajectory
- B. Caliber classification
- C. Linking cartridge to a specific firearm
- D. Estimating range of fire
Answer
Answer: C. Linking cartridge to a specific firearm
Explanation: Toolmarks left by a firing pin are unique and can be matched to a firearm’s breech face and firing mechanism using comparison microscopy.
Question 39: Which of the following bones is most commonly used to assess stature in forensic anthropology?
- A. Humerus
- B. Radius
- C. Femur
- D. Clavicle
Answer
Answer: C. Femur
Explanation: The femur is the longest bone in the human body and has well-established regression formulas for estimating stature in forensic analysis.
Question 40: In forensic DNA interpretation, what is a “stochastic effect” most commonly associated with?
- A. Population substructure errors
- B. Allele dropout in low-template DNA
- C. Contamination from handlers
- D. Degradation from environmental exposure
Answer
Answer: B. Allele dropout in low-template DNA
Explanation: Stochastic effects refer to random variations during PCR amplification, often leading to allele dropout or imbalance in low-template DNA samples.
Question 41: What is the most reliable technique for analyzing handwriting pressure patterns?
- A. Video spectral comparator
- B. Electrostatic detection apparatus (ESDA)
- C. Infrared luminescence
- D. Thin layer chromatography
Answer
Answer: B. Electrostatic detection apparatus (ESDA)
Explanation: ESDA is used to detect indented writing and pressure patterns on documents, which can reveal underlying impressions even after the original text is removed.
Question 42: In bloodstain pattern analysis, which pattern is typically associated with arterial spurting?
- A. Passive drops
- B. Transfer stains
- C. Expirated blood patterns
- D. Projected spurts with pulsatile flow
Answer
Answer: D. Projected spurts with pulsatile flow
Explanation: Arterial spurting results in a projected pattern with a pulsatile appearance due to the pressure of the heartbeat pushing blood from a breached artery.
Question 43: Which type of evidence is most suitable for analysis using mitochondrial DNA?
- A. Saliva on envelopes
- B. Semen stains on fabric
- C. Shed hair shafts without roots
- D. Fingernail scrapings with blood
Answer
Answer: C. Shed hair shafts without roots
Explanation: Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is useful when nuclear DNA is degraded or absent, such as in hair shafts, bones, and teeth, where nuclear DNA may not be present.
Question 44: In forensic ballistics, rifling in a firearm barrel is used to:
- A. Reduce the recoil of the firearm
- B. Identify bullet type through composition
- C. Stabilize the bullet in flight via spin
- D. Increase the bullet’s velocity
Answer
Answer: C. Stabilize the bullet in flight via spin
Explanation: Rifling imparts a spin to the bullet, increasing its stability and accuracy. The lands and grooves also leave unique markings for forensic comparison.
Question 45: Which enzyme is targeted in the forensic identification of semen using the acid phosphatase test?
- A. Amylase
- B. Peroxidase
- C. Acid phosphatase
- D. Catalase
Answer
Answer: C. Acid phosphatase
Explanation: Acid phosphatase is present at high levels in seminal fluid and serves as a reliable marker in presumptive tests for semen.
Question 46: In forensic entomology, the developmental stage of which insect is most useful for estimating the postmortem interval (PMI) during early decomposition?
- A. Dermestid beetle larvae
- B. Adult blowflies
- C. Blowfly maggots (larvae)
- D. Ants and cockroaches
Answer
Answer: C. Blowfly maggots (larvae)
Explanation: Blowfly larvae colonize a body quickly after death. Their development stages can be used to estimate the PMI during the early phases of decomposition.
Question 47: Which of the following techniques is most effective in distinguishing inks that appear identical under visible light?
- A. Gas chromatography
- B. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
- C. X-ray diffraction
- D. Neutron activation analysis
Answer
Answer: B. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
Explanation: TLC is widely used to separate ink components, helping distinguish visually similar inks based on their chemical makeup and mobility on the TLC plate.
Question 48: What is the term for the chemical enhancement technique used to visualize bloody footprints?
- A. Leuco crystal violet (LCV)
- B. Ninhydrin
- C. Fluorescein
- D. Acid fuchsin
Answer
Answer: A. Leuco crystal violet (LCV)
Explanation: LCV reacts with the heme in blood to produce a violet-colored product, making it useful for visualizing bloody impressions like footprints or fingerprints on porous surfaces.
Question 49: Which concept in forensic statistics is applied to determine the significance of a DNA match in a population?
- A. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
- B. Likelihood ratio
- C. Chi-square test
- D. T-test for means
Answer
Answer: B. Likelihood ratio
Explanation: The likelihood ratio compares the probability of observing the DNA evidence under two competing hypotheses, aiding in the statistical interpretation of forensic DNA matches.
Question 50: In digital image forensics, the analysis of JPEG quantization tables can help in:
- A. Identifying image resolution
- B. Tracing the camera model
- C. Detecting tampering or image editing
- D. Enhancing contrast of the image
Answer
Answer: C. Detecting tampering or image editing
Explanation: JPEG quantization table analysis can reveal inconsistencies in compression artifacts, suggesting splicing or manipulation in a digital image.
Categories
Mock Test 31
Categories
Mock Test 30
Question 1: Which of the following methods is most appropriate for age estimation in living individuals in forensic anthropology?
- A. Pubic symphysis morphology
- B. Cranial suture closure
- C. Epiphyseal fusion of long bones via radiography
- D. Cementum annulation
Answer
Answer: C. Epiphyseal fusion of long bones via radiography
Explanation: Radiographic evaluation of epiphyseal fusion is a standard method for estimating age in subadults. It is reliable in living individuals up to approximately 25 years of age.
Question 2: What is the primary application of microspectrophotometry in questioned document analysis?
- A. Determining paper age
- B. Estimating ink viscosity
- C. Differentiating inks with similar color
- D. Detecting indented writing
Answer
Answer: C. Differentiating inks with similar color
Explanation: Microspectrophotometry allows for the spectral comparison of inks at microscopic levels, helping to distinguish between inks that appear visually identical.
Question 3: In forensic entomology, what is the role of accumulated degree hours (ADH)?
- A. Measures bacterial decomposition rate
- B. Estimates the geographic origin of the cadaver
- C. Assesses total decomposition level
- D. Calculates insect development time based on temperature
Answer
Answer: D. Calculates insect development time based on temperature
Explanation: ADH represents the thermal input needed for insect development. It’s calculated by multiplying time and temperature above a minimum threshold, essential for estimating postmortem interval.
Question 4: Which forensic imaging technique is most suitable for visualizing gunshot residue (GSR) patterns on dark clothing?
- A. UV fluorescence photography
- B. X-ray radiography
- C. Infrared luminescence imaging
- D. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
Answer
Answer: C. Infrared luminescence imaging
Explanation: Infrared imaging enhances visualization of GSR on dark or patterned fabrics by detecting thermal or reflectance differences not visible under normal lighting.
Question 5: Which mitochondrial DNA region is commonly sequenced in forensic investigations?
- A. D-loop region (HV1 and HV2)
- B. COX1 gene
- C. ND5 gene
- D. 12S rRNA region
Answer
Answer: A. D-loop region (HV1 and HV2)
Explanation: The hypervariable regions HV1 and HV2 within the D-loop are most frequently targeted in forensic mtDNA analysis due to their high mutation rates and discriminative power.
Question 6: In forensic ballistics, which method is used for the 3D reconstruction of bullet trajectories at crime scenes?
- A. GPR scanning
- B. Laser scanning with trajectory rods
- C. FTIR analysis
- D. Optical microscopy
Answer
Answer: B. Laser scanning with trajectory rods
Explanation: Laser scanning combined with trajectory rods provides accurate spatial mapping of bullet paths and is critical for reconstructing the sequence of events in shootings.
Question 7: What is the primary role of pyrolysis-GC-MS in forensic fiber analysis?
- A. Estimation of fiber tensile strength
- B. Identification of dye components
- C. Differentiation of fiber polymer types
- D. Detection of bacterial contamination
Answer
Answer: C. Differentiation of fiber polymer types
Explanation: Pyrolysis-GC-MS thermally degrades fibers and analyzes their chemical breakdown products to identify synthetic polymer types, aiding forensic fiber comparisons.
Question 8: Which component of the Daubert standard assesses whether a forensic method has widespread acceptance?
- A. Peer review and publication
- B. Known error rate
- C. Testability of the theory or technique
- D. General acceptance in the scientific community
Answer
Answer: D. General acceptance in the scientific community
Explanation: The Daubert standard includes general acceptance as a criterion, reflecting whether the method is recognized and validated by experts in the field.
Question 9: Which analytical technique is preferred for identifying elemental composition in glass fragments?
- A. Gas chromatography
- B. Raman spectroscopy
- C. SEM-EDS (Energy dispersive X-ray spectroscopy)
- D. UV-Vis spectrophotometry
Answer
Answer: C. SEM-EDS (Energy dispersive X-ray spectroscopy)
Explanation: SEM-EDS allows for microanalysis of glass, providing precise elemental composition which is crucial for forensic comparison and source attribution.
Question 10: What is the main advantage of using probabilistic genotyping software over manual interpretation in DNA mixture analysis?
- A. Faster PCR amplification
- B. Reduces cost of STR kits
- C. Incorporates complex statistical modeling for mixture deconvolution
- D. Enables mitochondrial DNA extraction
Answer
Answer: C. Incorporates complex statistical modeling for mixture deconvolution
Explanation: Probabilistic genotyping software uses statistical models to better interpret complex mixtures, reducing subjectivity and improving accuracy in forensic DNA analysis.
Question 11: Which isotopic ratio is most useful for geographic origin determination in forensic anthropology?
- A. C13/C12
- B. O18/O16
- C. H2/H1
- D. Sr87/Sr86
Answer
Answer: D. Sr87/Sr86
Explanation: Strontium isotopic ratios in teeth and bones reflect the geological signature of the region where a person lived, aiding in geolocation of unidentified remains.
Question 12: Which technique is most appropriate for detecting gunshot primer residue on a suspect’s hands?
- A. Raman spectroscopy
- B. SEM-EDX
- C. UV-visible spectrometry
- D. Polarized light microscopy
Answer
Answer: B. SEM-EDX
Explanation: Scanning Electron Microscopy with Energy Dispersive X-ray Analysis identifies GSR particles based on their size, morphology, and elemental composition (Pb, Ba, Sb).
Question 13: In forensic toxicology, which matrix provides the longest detection window for chronic drug use?
- A. Blood
- B. Urine
- C. Hair
- D. Oral fluid
Answer
Answer: C. Hair
Explanation: Drugs incorporate into hair over time, enabling retrospective analysis of substance use over weeks to months, depending on hair length.
Question 14: What is the primary statistical output of a likelihood ratio (LR) in forensic evidence evaluation?
- A. The absolute probability of guilt
- B. The relative probability of two competing hypotheses
- C. The error rate of a forensic method
- D. The probability of false positive results
Answer
Answer: B. The relative probability of two competing hypotheses
Explanation: LR quantifies how much more likely the evidence is under the prosecution hypothesis versus the defense hypothesis, supporting probabilistic reasoning in court.
Question 15: Which of the following is the most reliable method for age estimation in adults over 40 years of age?
- A. Epiphyseal closure
- B. Sternal rib end morphology
- C. Dental eruption
- D. Diaphyseal length
Answer
Answer: B. Sternal rib end morphology
Explanation: The morphology of the sternal end of ribs changes consistently with age, making it a valuable indicator for adult age estimation in forensic anthropology.
Question 16: In digital forensics, which file system is most commonly used in modern Windows operating systems?
- A. FAT32
- B. exFAT
- C. NTFS
- D. HFS+
Answer
Answer: C. NTFS
Explanation: The New Technology File System (NTFS) supports advanced metadata, file permissions, and journaling, making it the default for most modern Windows systems.
Question 17: What is the forensic significance of “diatoms” in a drowning case?
- A. They indicate decomposition stage
- B. They identify the presence of GSR
- C. They help differentiate ante-mortem from post-mortem drowning
- D. They are used in food poisoning cases
Answer
Answer: C. They help differentiate ante-mortem from post-mortem drowning
Explanation: Diatoms enter the bloodstream only if the victim inhales water while alive. Their presence in internal organs suggests ante-mortem drowning.
Question 18: In forensic odontology, which of the following is best used for gender determination?
- A. Incisor morphology
- B. Molar occlusion pattern
- C. Mandibular canine index
- D. Dental eruption sequence
Answer
Answer: C. Mandibular canine index
Explanation: Males generally have larger mandibular canines than females. The ratio of intercanine distance to tooth width is used to statistically estimate sex.
Question 19: In explosive residue analysis, which technique is preferred for detection of inorganic explosives like ammonium nitrate?
- A. TLC
- B. FTIR
- C. Ion Chromatography
- D. GC-MS
Answer: C. Ion Chromatography
Explanation: Ion chromatography separates and quantifies ions such as nitrate, chlorate, and perchlorate, making it ideal for analyzing inorganic explosive residues.
Question 20: What is the purpose of a population substructure correction (θ or FST) in forensic DNA statistics?
- A. It corrects for sample contamination
- B. It adjusts for allele frequency variation across populations
- C. It calibrates PCR amplification efficiency
- D. It estimates mutation rates in STRs
Answer
Answer: B. It adjusts for allele frequency variation across populations
Explanation: The θ (theta) correction accounts for the fact that individuals from the same subpopulation are more likely to share alleles, ensuring accurate statistical estimation in DNA profiling.
Question 21: Which approach is most appropriate for assessing the probability of handwriting match in forensic document examination?
- A. Principal Component Analysis
- B. K-means clustering
- C. Bayesian inference model
- D. Discriminant function analysis
Answer
Answer: C. Bayesian inference model
Explanation: Bayesian models can incorporate prior knowledge and compare the probability of the observed handwriting under competing hypotheses, allowing probabilistic reasoning in forensic handwriting identification.
Question 22: In forensic entomology, which developmental marker is most reliable for postmortem interval estimation in early decomposition stages?
- A. Insect species abundance
- B. Time to adult emergence
- C. Larval instar stages
- D. Pupal case density
Answer
Answer: C. Larval instar stages
Explanation: In early decomposition, the age and developmental stage of fly larvae (instars) are critical indicators for estimating the postmortem interval (PMI).
Question 23: Which component in blood primarily influences its spectral signature in visible spectroscopy for forensic identification?
- A. Leukocytes
- B. Platelets
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Plasma proteins
Answer
Answer: C. Hemoglobin
Explanation: Hemoglobin has distinct absorbance peaks in the visible spectrum, especially around 540 and 580 nm, making it crucial in spectroscopic blood analysis.
Question 24: Which legal precedent in India forms the foundation for DNA evidence admissibility in court?
- A. State of Maharashtra v. Damu
- B. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
- C. Selvi v. State of Karnataka
- D. Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: A. State of Maharashtra v. Damu
Explanation: In this case, the Indian judiciary recognized the scientific reliability of DNA evidence and upheld its admissibility under proper procedural safeguards.
Question 25: What is the role of “loss on ignition” in forensic soil examination?
- A. Determines trace metal content
- B. Measures organic matter content
- C. Identifies mineral crystal structure
- D. Quantifies soil pH
Answer
Answer: B. Measures organic matter content
Explanation: Loss on ignition (LOI) involves burning the soil sample at high temperatures, and the mass loss corresponds to organic content, aiding in forensic comparison.
Question 26: In DNA profiling, which locus is most prone to stochastic effects in low-template DNA samples?
- A. TH01
- B. D21S11
- C. Amelogenin
- D. CSF1PO
Answer
Answer: B. D21S11
Explanation: Larger loci like D21S11 tend to show allele drop-out more frequently in low-template DNA samples due to their longer amplicon size, affecting interpretation reliability.
Question 27: Which imaging technique is most suitable for analyzing latent fingerprint residues on multicolored surfaces?
- A. White light photography
- B. Ninhydrin spray
- C. Alternate light source (ALS)
- D. Electrostatic detection
Answer
Answer: C. Alternate light source (ALS)
Explanation: ALS uses different wavelengths to enhance fingerprint visibility against complex backgrounds without damaging the print, making it ideal for multicolored or patterned surfaces.
Question 28: In questioned document examination, “line quality” is used to assess:
- A. Age of the document
- B. Type of writing instrument
- C. Writer’s muscular control and fluency
- D. Ink chemical composition
Answer
Answer: C. Writer’s muscular control and fluency
Explanation: Line quality reflects the natural rhythm, pressure, and smoothness of writing, helping distinguish between genuine and forged handwriting.
Question 29: What type of forensic evidence is best suited for age estimation using cementum annulations?
- A. Human bone
- B. Hair shaft
- C. Tooth root
- D. Fingerprint ridges
Answer
Answer: C. Tooth root
Explanation: Cementum, a calcified layer on tooth roots, shows annual growth lines, allowing fairly accurate age estimation in adult individuals.
Question 30: What is the main advantage of mitochondrial DNA analysis in forensic genealogy?
- A. High discriminatory power among siblings
- B. Paternal lineage tracing
- C. Maternal lineage tracing over generations
- D. Ability to amplify STRs in degraded samples
Answer
Answer: C. Maternal lineage tracing over generations
Explanation: mtDNA is inherited maternally and changes slowly over generations, making it suitable for tracing maternal ancestry, especially in genealogical and cold case investigations.
Question 31: In forensic chemistry, which technique is most suitable for distinguishing isomeric synthetic cannabinoids?
- A. GC-FID
- B. FT-IR
- C. NMR spectroscopy
- D. UV-Visible spectroscopy
Answer
Answer: C. NMR spectroscopy
Explanation: NMR provides detailed structural information and can differentiate isomers based on hydrogen and carbon environments—critical for synthetic drug isomers.
Question 32: In digital forensics, which of the following is a volatile form of evidence?
- A. Deleted files from hard disk
- B. Print spool files
- C. Registry keys
- D. RAM contents
Answer
Answer: D. RAM contents
Explanation: Volatile evidence like RAM is lost on system shutdown. It can contain valuable data such as passwords, encryption keys, or running processes.
Question 33: Which analytical technique best characterizes explosive residues in post-blast debris?
- A. UV-Vis Spectroscopy
- B. TLC
- C. Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS)
- D. Capillary electrophoresis
Answer
Answer: C. Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS)
Explanation: IMS is sensitive and rapid for detecting nitro-organic explosives and is widely used for trace screening in post-blast investigations and airport security.
Question 34: Which of the following is the most critical quality parameter for interpreting STR DNA profiles?
- A. Number of loci analyzed
- B. Capillary voltage
- C. Peak height ratio
- D. Amplicon size
Answer
Answer: C. Peak height ratio
Explanation: The peak height ratio (PHR) between alleles of a heterozygous locus helps detect allele drop-out or imbalances, especially in low-template or degraded samples.
Question 35: Which of the following fingerprint development methods is based on polymerization reaction?
- A. Ninhydrin
- B. Cyanoacrylate fuming
- C. Iodine fuming
- D. Physical developer
Answer
Answer: B. Cyanoacrylate fuming
Explanation: The fumes from cyanoacrylate (superglue) polymerize upon contact with fingerprint residues, forming a white stable ridge detail useful on non-porous surfaces.
Question 36: Which form of evidence is considered class evidence in forensic footwear analysis?
- A. Random scratches on sole
- B. Wear patterns unique to gait
- C. Brand and size of footwear
- D. Cuts caused by sharp objects
Answer
Answer: C. Brand and size of footwear
Explanation: Brand, design, and size relate to a group or category of shoes and cannot identify a specific source—thus considered class characteristics.
Question 37: Which scientific principle allows forensic anthropologists to distinguish between animal and human bones?
- A. Trabecular pattern analysis
- B. DNA barcoding
- C. Haversian system comparison
- D. Elemental XRF profiling
Answer
Answer: C. Haversian system comparison
Explanation: The microscopic structure of bone, including the Haversian system, differs between humans and other animals. This helps in species identification.
Question 38: What is the significance of a “point of convergence” in bloodstain pattern analysis?
- A. It estimates the time since bloodshed
- B. It locates the position of the source in 3D
- C. It determines weapon type
- D. It identifies impact surface texture
Answer
Answer: B. It locates the position of the source in 3D
Explanation: By tracing straight lines through the directionality of multiple blood drops, investigators estimate the spatial origin of the blood, which helps reconstruct events.
Question 39: Which analytical approach is best for comparing lip print patterns in forensic cheiloscopy?
- A. Ridge counting
- B. Suzuki and Tsuchihashi classification
- C. Frequency distribution mapping
- D. Microscopic fiber identification
Answer
Answer: B. Suzuki and Tsuchihashi classification
Explanation: This classification system categorizes lip grooves into types (I-V), facilitating comparison and potential individualization in lip print analysis.
Question 40: What is the function of “cross-validation” in forensic machine learning applications?
- A. Confirms that the same analyst repeated the test
- B. Ensures the sample was preserved across tests
- C. Evaluates model generalizability and prevents overfitting
- D. Compares output between manual and AI methods
Answer
Answer: C. Evaluates model generalizability and prevents overfitting
Explanation: Cross-validation divides data into training and testing sets to assess the model’s predictive performance and reduce overfitting risk—crucial in forensic pattern recognition tasks.
Question 41: In forensic odontology, which measurement is most reliable for estimating age in children?
- A. Eruption time of third molars
- B. Root transparency index
- C. Schour and Massler tooth development chart
- D. Mandibular angle measurement
Answer
Answer: C. Schour and Massler tooth development chart
Explanation: This chart maps tooth development stages against chronological age, making it a dependable tool for pediatric age estimation in forensic cases.
Question 42: Which technique is best for analyzing non-volatile and thermally labile poisons in biological samples?
- A. GC-MS
- B. HPTLC
- C. HPLC
- D. Colorimetry
Answer
Answer: C. HPLC
Explanation: HPLC is suitable for analyzing polar, non-volatile, and thermally unstable compounds like barbiturates, alkaloids, and pesticides in toxicological screening.
Question 43: What is the significance of the ‘Quetelet Index’ in forensic anthropology?
- A. It measures femoral head diameter
- B. It estimates body mass index
- C. It evaluates cranial index for ancestry
- D. It determines age based on pelvis fusion
Answer
Answer: B. It estimates body mass index
Explanation: Quetelet Index is another term for Body Mass Index (BMI), calculated using height and weight, and can be useful in profiling unknown deceased individuals.
Question 44: In questioned document examination, which feature is least likely to vary under disguise?
- A. Letter formation
- B. Slant of writing
- C. Spacing between words
- D. Pen pressure
Answer
Answer: C. Spacing between words
Explanation: Spacing is often subconsciously consistent even in disguised handwriting and can provide important clues for writer identification.
Question 45: Which type of spectroscopy is most suitable for detecting gunshot residue (GSR) on a suspect’s hand?
- A. Raman spectroscopy
- B. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
- C. UV-Visible spectroscopy
- D. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
Answer
Answer: B. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
Explanation: AAS is sensitive and specific for detecting elements like lead, barium, and antimony, which are characteristic of GSR.
Question 46: Which cell type is targeted in DNA methylation analysis for age estimation?
- A. Leukocytes
- B. Epithelial cells
- C. Buccal mucosal cells
- D. Any nucleated cells
Answer
Answer: D. Any nucleated cells
Explanation: DNA methylation patterns at specific CpG sites are cell-type independent and can be used across various nucleated cell types to estimate biological age.
Question 47: What is the role of microRNA (miRNA) in forensic identification?
- A. Age estimation
- B. Body fluid identification
- C. Species differentiation
- D. DNA quantification
Answer
Answer: B. Body fluid identification
Explanation: miRNAs are small, stable RNA molecules differentially expressed in various body fluids and can be used as biomarkers in forensic body fluid identification.
Question 48: Which of the following evidence types is admissible under the ‘Daubert Standard’?
- A. Anecdotal expert experience
- B. Peer-reviewed scientific technique
- C. Lie detector test
- D. Statement from a police informant
Answer
Answer: B. Peer-reviewed scientific technique
Explanation: The Daubert Standard assesses admissibility based on scientific validity, peer review, known error rates, and acceptance in the scientific community.
Question 49: What is a major advantage of MPS (Massively Parallel Sequencing) over conventional capillary electrophoresis in forensic DNA profiling?
- A. Faster processing time
- B. Lower equipment cost
- C. Detection of sequence variation within STRs
- D. Less DNA requirement
Answer
Answer: C. Detection of sequence variation within STRs
Explanation: MPS provides deeper information by identifying sequence-level differences within alleles that appear identical in size, increasing discrimination power.
Question 50: In forensic entomology, which developmental stage of the blowfly is most reliable for postmortem interval estimation?
- A. Egg
- B. First instar larva
- C. Third instar larva
- D. Adult fly
Answer
Answer: C. Third instar larva
Explanation: The third instar larva is the most developed feeding stage, and its growth is temperature-dependent, allowing accurate PMI estimation using developmental models.