1. First chemical examiner’s laboratory in India was established in
- A) Agra
- B) Bombay
- C) Calcutta
- D) Madras
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: The first chemical examiner’s laboratory in India was established in Madras (now Chennai) in the year 1849. This laboratory, known as the Chemical Examiner’s Laboratory, was set up by the British colonial government to provide scientific analysis and examination of evidence related to criminal cases. It played a crucial role in the development of forensic science in India and laid the foundation for the establishment of similar laboratories in other parts of the country.
2. Finger print examination is associated with
- i) Malphighi
- ii) Hans Gross
- iii) Galton
- iv) Heindl
- A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
- B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
- C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
- D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: Finger print examination is associated with the following individuals:
- i) Marcello Malpighi (1628-1694): An Italian biologist and physician, he was one of the earliest scientists to study the ridges on the skin of fingers and palms.
- iii) Sir Francis Galton (1822-1911): An English polymath, he established the first scientific basis for the use of fingerprints as a means of identification. He studied the uniqueness and permanence of fingerprints and developed the first classification system for fingerprints.
- iv) Johannes Evangelista Purkinje (1787-1869): A Czech anatomist and physiologist, he is credited with introducing the first scientific nomenclature for the various patterns found in fingerprints.
Question 3: Match the following:
List – I | List – II |
---|---|
(a) A. S. Curry | (i) Finger print |
(b) Goddard | (ii) Document examination |
(c) Cherill | (iii) Poison examination |
(d) Hilton | (iv) Forensic Ballistics |
Code:
- A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
- C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
- D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Answer: C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Explanation
In the context of forensic science, A. S. Curry is known for his work related to poison examination, making significant contributions to the field of toxicology. Goddard is recognized for his pioneering work in forensic ballistics, which involves the examination of evidence related to firearms and ammunition. Cherill has been associated with fingerprint analysis, a key aspect of personal identification in forensic investigations. Lastly, Hilton has made his mark in the domain of document examination, scrutinizing handwriting, signatures, and other aspects of questioned documents.
4. The control soil sample for matching the incriminated soil sample of foot print should be collected from
- A) Foot print itself
- B) About 2-3 inches away from foot print
- C) About 1 feet away from foot print
- D) More than 1 feet away from the spot
Answer
Answer-B
Explanation: When collecting a control soil sample for comparison with an incriminated soil sample from a foot print, it is recommended to collect the control sample from about 2-3 inches away from the foot print. This distance is close enough to ensure that the control sample represents the soil composition and characteristics of the area where the foot print was found, but far enough to avoid contamination from the foot print itself. Collecting the control sample from the foot print or too far away may lead to inaccurate comparisons and unreliable results.
5. Physical evidences at the scene of crime should be collected in the presence of
- A) Relatives of victim
- B) One independent witness
- C) Two independent witnesses
- D) Magistrate
Answer
Answer-C
Explanation: Physical evidences at the scene of crime should be collected in the presence of two independent witnesses. This is a standard practice in forensic investigations to ensure transparency, maintain the integrity of the evidence collection process, and minimize the potential for allegations of tampering or mishandling of evidence. Having two independent witnesses observing the collection process adds credibility and helps establish a chain of custody for the evidence. These witnesses can later testify in court about the procedures followed during evidence collection, if required.
7. Assertion (A): Vacuum is maintained in electron microscope.
Reason (R): Vacuum impedes movements of electrons.
- A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
- D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer
Answer-C
Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct. In an electron microscope, a high vacuum is maintained to prevent the electrons from colliding with air molecules, which would impede their movement and reduce the resolution of the microscope. The vacuum environment allows the electrons to travel uninterrupted and maintain their high energy and velocity, enabling the microscope to achieve high magnification and resolution.
8. Hidden metallic objects can be detected by
- A) NMR
- B) Soft X-rays
- C) NAA
- D) Hard-X-rays
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: Hidden metallic objects can be detected using hard X-rays. Hard X-rays have higher energy and shorter wavelengths compared to soft X-rays, allowing them to penetrate through materials more effectively. When hard X-rays pass through an object, they interact with the metallic components, creating a distinct contrast or absorption pattern that can be detected and used to identify the presence of hidden metallic objects. This technique is commonly used in security screening applications, such as airport scanners and cargo inspection systems.
9. Bolometer is used as detector in
- A) I.R. Spectrophotometer
- B) UV Spectrophotometer
- C) Colorimeter
- D) NMR
Answer
Answer-A
Explanation: A bolometer is a type of thermal detector used to measure the power of incident electromagnetic radiation. It is commonly used as a detector in infrared (IR) spectrophotometers. The bolometer operates by absorbing the infrared radiation, which causes a temperature change proportional to the intensity of the radiation. This temperature change is then measured and converted into an electrical signal, allowing the quantification of the infrared radiation. Bolometers are widely used in IR spectroscopy due to their high sensitivity and broad spectral response in the infrared region.
Question 10: Arrange the following types of chromatographic examination in the increasing order:
- i) GLC
- ii) Column Chromatography
- iii) HPTLC
- iv) HPLC
Code:
- A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
- B) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
- C) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii) are correct.
- D) (iii), (i), (iv) and (ii) are correct.
Answer: C) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii) are correct.
Explanation
The correct increasing order of the given chromatographic examination techniques is:
- Column Chromatography: A classic separation technique where a mixture is dissolved in a mobile phase and passed through a stationary phase in a column, allowing components to separate based on their differential affinities for the stationary phase.
- GLC (Gas-Liquid Chromatography): A type of chromatography where the mobile phase is a gas and the stationary phase is a liquid, used for separating and analyzing volatile compounds.
- HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography): A highly efficient and sensitive technique that uses a liquid mobile phase and a solid stationary phase, pumped under high pressure to achieve better separation and resolution.
- HPTLC (High-Performance Thin-Layer Chromatography): A modern and advanced version of traditional thin-layer chromatography, offering improved separation efficiency, automation, and quantitative analysis capabilities.
Question 11: Rh antigen in blood is also known as
- A) A antigen
- B) B antigen
- C) D antigen
- D) AB antigen
Answer
Answer-C
Explanation: The Rh antigen in blood is also known as the D antigen. The Rh (Rhesus) blood group system is named after the Rhesus monkey, in which the Rh antigen was first discovered. The presence or absence of the D antigen on the surface of red blood cells determines an individual’s Rh status, either Rh-positive (D antigen present) or Rh-negative (D antigen absent). The Rh factor is an important consideration in blood transfusions and during pregnancy due to the potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility.
Question 12: Cellular proteins in blood are the following:
- i) PGM
- ii) HP
- iii) EAP
- iv) GC
Code:
- A) (i) and (iii) are correct
- B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
- C) (ii) and (iv) are correct
- D) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: The cellular proteins in blood are PGM (Phosphoglucomutase) and GC (Group-specific component). PGM is an enzyme found in red blood cells and other cells, while GC is a vitamin D-binding protein present in serum. These proteins can be used for various forensic purposes, such as identifying the source of biological fluids or determining the presence of genetic markers.
Question 13: Assertion (A): Vomited blood is acidic in reaction.
Reason (R): It is due to the action of gastric juice.
- A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- D) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct. Vomited blood is acidic in reaction due to the action of gastric juice in the stomach. Gastric juice contains hydrochloric acid, which gives it a low pH (acidic). When blood is vomited, it mixes with the acidic gastric juice, resulting in an acidic reaction.
Question 14: Arrange the following methods of blood examination in the decreasing order:
- i) Protein enzyme estimation
- ii) Percipitin test
- iii) Crystal test
- iv) DNA analysis
Code:
- A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
- C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
- D) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: The correct decreasing order of the given methods of blood examination is:
- DNA analysis: This is the most advanced and definitive method for identifying individuals and determining the source of biological evidence.
- Protein enzyme estimation: This method involves analyzing the activity and concentration of various enzymes and proteins present in blood samples.
- Percipitin test: This serological test is used to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies in blood samples.
- Crystal test: This is a relatively simple and less specific method that involves observing the crystal patterns formed by blood samples under a microscope.
Question 15: Match the following:
List – I | List – II |
---|---|
(a) MN | (i) WBC |
(b) ESD | (ii) Red cell antigen |
(c) GC | (iii) Red cell isoenzyme |
(d) HLA | (iv) Serum protein |
Code:
- A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
- C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
- D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Answer: C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation
The correct match between the lists is as follows:
- (a) MN – (ii) Red cell antigen: The MN blood group system is a set of antigens found on the surface of red blood cells.
- (b) ESD – (iii) Red cell isoenzyme: ESD stands for Esterase D, which is an isoenzyme found in red blood cells.
- (c) GC – (iv) Serum protein: GC is a vitamin D-binding protein found in serum.
- (d) HLA – (i) WBC: HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) is a protein found on the surface of white blood cells (WBCs).
Question 16: Adulteration of gasoline with Kerosene oil can be detected by
- A) TLC
- B) GLC
- C) HPLC
- D) HPTLC
Answer
Answer-B
Explanation: The adulteration of gasoline with kerosene oil can be detected by Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC). GLC is a powerful analytical technique that separates and identifies the components of a mixture based on their boiling points and interactions with the stationary phase. When a gasoline sample adulterated with kerosene is analyzed by GLC, it will show distinct peaks corresponding to the various hydrocarbons present in both gasoline and kerosene, allowing for the detection of the adulteration.
Question 17: Diacetyl morphine is also named as
- A) Mascaline
- B) Psilocybin
- C) LSD
- D) Heroin
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: Diacetyl morphine is also known as heroin. Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid drug derived from morphine, a naturally occurring substance found in the opium poppy plant. Diacetyl morphine is the chemical name for heroin, which is one of the most potent and addictive illicit drugs. It is classified as a Schedule I controlled substance in many countries due to its high potential for abuse and severe health risks associated with its use.
Question 18: Match the following:
List – I (Drug) | List – II (Street Name) |
---|---|
(a) Heroin | (i) Angel dust |
(b) Marijuana | (ii) Junk |
(c) Amphetamine | (iii) Up |
(d) Phencyclidine | (iv) Pot |
Code:
- A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
- C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
- D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Answer: B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Explanation
The correct match between the lists is as follows:
- (a) Heroin – (ii) Junk: “Junk” is a common street name for heroin.
- (b) Marijuana – (iv) Pot: Marijuana is often referred to as “pot” or “weed” on the street.
- (c) Amphetamine – (iii) Up: Amphetamines are stimulants that produce an “up” or energetic effect, hence the street name “up.”
- (d) Phencyclidine – (i) Angel dust: Phencyclidine (PCP) is a dissociative drug commonly known as “angel dust” on the street.
Question 19: Botulism is a form of
- A) Volatile poison
- B) Food poisoning
- C) Pesticide
- D) Metallic poisoning
Answer
Answer-B
Explanation: Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused by the neurotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. It is a severe and potentially life-threatening illness that can affect the nervous system and cause paralysis. Botulism is typically caused by consuming contaminated food products, such as improperly canned or preserved foods, where the botulinum toxin has been produced by the bacteria. Proper food handling, cooking, and storage practices are essential to prevent botulism.
Question 20: Arrange the following with the increasing quantity of THC in Canabis Sativa
- i) Ganja
- ii) Bhang
- iii) Charas
- iv) Hasish oil
Code:
- A) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
- B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
- C) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i) are correct
- D) (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii) are correct
Answer
Answer-A
Explanation: The correct order with increasing quantity of THC (Tetrahydrocannabinol, the primary psychoactive component in cannabis) in Cannabis sativa is:
- Bhang: Bhang is a preparation made from the leaves and seeds of the cannabis plant, containing relatively low levels of THC.
- Ganja: Ganja refers to the dried flowers and buds of the cannabis plant, which have higher THC content than bhang.
- Charas: Charas is a handmade hashish made from the resinous trichomes of the cannabis plant, containing a higher concentration of THC than ganja.
- Hashish oil: Hashish oil, also known as hash oil or cannabis oil, is a highly potent cannabis extract containing the highest levels of THC among the listed options.
Question 21: The usual barrel length of a Carbine is
- A) 6”
- B) 12”
- C) 22”
- D) 30”
Answer
Answer-B
Explanation: A carbine is a lightweight, compact rifle typically used by military and law enforcement personnel. The usual barrel length of a carbine is around 12 inches (12″). This shorter barrel length compared to a standard rifle makes the carbine more maneuverable and easier to handle in close-quarters scenarios, while still providing effective range and accuracy for its intended purposes.
Question 22: The improvised cylinder in a shot gun is having the following type of constriction at the muzzel end of the barrel
- A) 1/1000 inch
- B) 3/1000 inch
- C) 10/1000 inch
- D) 20/1000 inch
Answer
Answer-A
Explanation: In an improvised shotgun, the cylinder at the muzzle end of the barrel typically has a constriction of 1/1000 inch (0.001 inch or 0.0254 mm). This constriction, also known as a choke, is designed to control the spread of the shotgun pellets as they exit the barrel. A 1/1000 inch constriction is considered a tight or full choke, which results in a more concentrated and focused shot pattern, useful for long-range shooting.
Question 23: Assertion (A): Diameter of the chamber in a fire arm is slightly greater than the diameter of the cartridge to be fired.
Reason (R): It accommodates the expansion of the cartridge case during the firing process.
- A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- D) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Answer
Answer-D
Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct. The diameter of the chamber in a firearm is designed to be slightly greater than the diameter of the cartridge to be fired. This clearance is intentional and allows for the slight expansion of the cartridge case when the propellant is ignited and generates high pressure during the firing process. If the chamber were the same size as the cartridge, the expansion could cause the case to rupture or become stuck, potentially causing a dangerous situation.
Question 24: Walker test of gun shot residue is done to detect the presence of
- A) Nitrate
- B) Nitrite
- C) Sulphate
- D) Iodide
Answer
Answer-B
Explanation: The Walker test, also known as the paraffin test, is a forensic technique used to detect the presence of nitrites, which are a component of gunshot residue (GSR). When a firearm is discharged, the burning of the propellant produces nitrites that can be deposited on the shooter’s hands or clothing. The Walker test involves treating the suspect’s hands or clothing with a chemical solution that reacts with nitrites, producing a distinctive color change. This test can provide circumstantial evidence that an individual may have recently fired a gun.
Question 25: PETN is
- A) Penta Erythrital Trinitrate
- B) Penta Erythritol Dinitrate
- C) Penta Erythritol Tetranitrate
- D) 1-Nitroguaindine
Answer
Answer-C
Explanation: PETN stands for Penta Erythritol Tetranitrate, which is a powerful explosive compound. It is a nitrate-based explosive material commonly used in detonators, booster charges, and as a component in various explosive compositions. PETN is known for its high sensitivity to impact and friction, making it useful in initiating explosions but also requiring careful handling and storage.