Question 1: While conducting Luminol test, luminol reacts with hydrogen salt and forms?
- A. Cation
- B. Di-anion
- C. Anion
- D. Zwitter ion
Answer
Answer: B. Di-anion
Explanation: The Luminol test is a forensic technique used to detect trace amounts of blood at crime scenes. Luminol (3-aminophthalhydrazide) is a chemical compound that reacts with the iron present in the heme component of hemoglobin, producing a bluish-green chemiluminescence. In this reaction, luminol reacts with an oxidizing agent (such as hydrogen peroxide) in the presence of a catalyst (such as a blood salt), forming a di-anion. This di-anion then decomposes, releasing energy in the form of light, thereby revealing the presence of blood.
Question 2: The para-dimethyl aminoacid (DMAC) reacts with ______, if present, produces a pink colour product.
- A. Creatinine
- B. Ammonia
- C. Uric acid
- D. Urea
Answer
Answer: D. Urea
Explanation: Para-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde (DMAC) is a chemical reagent used in forensic investigations to detect the presence of urea. When DMAC reacts with urea, it produces a pink-colored product. Urea is a waste product excreted in urine and is also present in other biological fluids like blood and sweat. The formation of the pink color is a positive indication of the presence of urea, which can assist in identifying and analyzing biological stains or traces at crime scenes.
Question 3: Assertion (A): Corporo basal index helps in the determination of sex.
Reason (R): It is derived by calculating the measurements of the bones of skull.
Code:
- A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
- B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
- C. (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
- D. (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer
Answer: C. (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
Explanation: The corporo-basal index, also known as the cranial index, is a method used in forensic anthropology to determine the sex of an individual from skeletal remains, particularly the skull. It is calculated by dividing the maximum breadth of the skull by the maximum length of the skull and multiplying by 100. However, the reason (R) is incorrect because the corporo-basal index is not derived from the measurements of individual bones of the skull but rather the overall dimensions of the skull.
Question 4: Which of the following skeletal changes is the last one to happen?
- A. Fusion of metopic suture
- B. Fusion of Greater cornu of hyoid with the body
- C. Fusion of Basi-sphenoid with Basi-occipit
- D. Fusion of Xiphisternum and manubrium
Answer
Answer: D. Fusion of Xiphisternum and manubrium
Explanation: The fusion of the xiphisternum (the smallest and cartilaginous part of the sternum) and the manubrium (the upper broad part of the sternum) is the last skeletal change to occur among the options provided. This fusion typically occurs in late adulthood or old age, usually after the age of 60. The other skeletal changes, such as the fusion of the metopic suture, the fusion of the greater cornu of the hyoid bone, and the fusion of the basi-sphenoid and basi-occiput, occur at earlier stages of skeletal development and maturation.
Question 5: In a Firearm, which noise component could be reduced by a Suppressor?
- A. Supersonic crack of bullet
- B. Hammer noise
- C. Pressure wave
- D. Flight noise
Answer
Answer: C. Pressure wave
Explanation: A suppressor, also known as a silencer, is a device attached to the muzzle of a firearm to reduce the noise and visible signature of the gun when fired. While suppressors cannot completely silence a firearm, they are effective in reducing the pressure wave generated by the expansion of hot gases from the muzzle. The supersonic crack of the bullet, hammer noise, and flight noise are not significantly affected by a suppressor. The primary function of a suppressor is to mitigate the loud pressure wave created during the discharge of the firearm.
Question 6: A firearm “Model 1900 Colt 0.38 automating” is associated to:
- A. Jonann Nikolaus
- B. Jonann Kiefuss
- C. John Browning
- D. Samuel Colt
Answer
Answer: C. John Browning
Explanation: The Model 1900 Colt 0.38 automating was a semi-automatic pistol designed by the renowned firearms designer John Browning for Colt’s Manufacturing Company. This pistol, introduced in 1900, was one of Browning’s early successful designs and was influential in the development of subsequent semi-automatic pistols. It was a significant step forward in the evolution of self-loading pistols and marked a milestone in the history of firearms design.
Question 7: Which of the following is used as dehydrating agent during the extraction of poisons from toxicological samples?
- A. Ammonium sulphate
- B. Ferrous Chloride
- C. Sodium Tungstate
- D. Ammonium Nitrate
Answer
Answer: A. Ammonium sulphate
Explanation: In the extraction of poisons from toxicological samples, ammonium sulfate is commonly used as a dehydrating agent. During the extraction process, ammonium sulfate helps remove water from the sample matrix, facilitating the efficient extraction of the target compounds (poisons or toxins). By dehydrating the sample, ammonium sulfate increases the solubility of the target compounds in organic solvents, allowing for better extraction and subsequent analysis.
Question 8: Widmark equation is used to calculate which of the following:
- A. Breath alcohol concentration
- B. Urine alcohol concentration
- C. Blood alcohol concentration
- D. Sweat alcohol concentration
Answer
Answer: C. Blood alcohol concentration
Explanation: The Widmark equation, developed by Swedish scientist Erik M.P. Widmark, is a widely used forensic formula to calculate the blood alcohol concentration (BAC) in an individual based on factors such as body weight, amount of alcohol consumed, and the rate of alcohol elimination from the body. This equation is particularly useful in cases related to driving under the influence (DUI) and other alcohol-related investigations, as it provides an estimate of the BAC at a specific time based on the available information.
Question 9: Which of the following is not a petroleum product?
- A. Bitumen
- B. Wax
- C. Petrol
- D. TATP
Answer
Answer: D. TATP
Explanation: TATP, or triacetone triperoxide, is not a petroleum product. It is an organic compound that is often used as an explosive material. TATP is highly sensitive and has been involved in various terrorist attacks and improvised explosive devices (IEDs). On the other hand, bitumen, wax, and petrol (gasoline) are all petroleum products derived from the refining of crude oil.
Question 10: Which firearm was the earliest example of true breech-loading weapon having a self contained cartridge?
- A. Pin fire
- B. Match lock
- C. Wheel lock
- D. Flint lock
Answer
Answer: A. Pin fire
Explanation: The pinfire, also known as the priming system, was the earliest example of a true breech-loading weapon that used a self-contained cartridge. Invented in the early 19th century, the pinfire cartridge had a small percussion cap integrated into the base of the cartridge case. When the firearm’s firing pin struck the cap, it ignited the gunpowder within the cartridge, propelling the bullet. This design marked a significant advancement in firearms technology, paving the way for more modern ammunition and firearm designs.
Question 11: Crompton scattering results in which of the following?
- A. Interference with the resulting signal
- B. Increase in peak intensity
- C. Increase in signal to noise ratio
- D. High resolution
Answer
Answer: A. Interference with the resulting signal
Explanation: Crompton scattering, also known as non-resonant Raman scattering, is a phenomenon that occurs in Raman spectroscopy. It results in interference with the resulting Raman signal by introducing an additional broad background signal. This interference can obscure or distort the Raman peaks of interest, making it challenging to accurately interpret the spectral data. Crompton scattering is caused by the interaction of the incident laser light with the sample matrix and can be particularly problematic in samples with high fluorescence or when using certain laser wavelengths.
Question 12: Which of the following technique is used for the elemental profiling of cement?
- A. ICP – MS
- B. GC – MS
- C. FT – IR
- D. HPLC
Answer
Answer: A. ICP – MS
Explanation: Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS) is a highly sensitive analytical technique used for the elemental profiling of cement. Cement is a complex material composed of various inorganic compounds, and ICP-MS is well-suited for determining the concentrations of various elements present in cement samples. The technique involves ionizing the sample using an argon plasma and then separating and detecting the resulting ions based on their mass-to-charge ratios. ICP-MS provides accurate and precise quantitative information about the elemental composition of cement, which is useful for quality control, forensic investigations, and research purposes.
Question 13: Which of the following is not true for Atomic emission Spectroscopy?
- A. It is a destructive Technique.
- B. It is used for metal analysis.
- C. It is a quantitative technique.
- D. It can distinguish the oxidation states of elements.
Answer
Answer: D. It can distinguish the oxidation states of elements.
Explanation: Atomic emission spectroscopy (AES) is an analytical technique used to determine the elemental composition of a sample by analyzing the characteristic wavelengths of light emitted by atoms or ions in an excited state. While AES is a destructive technique (A), is commonly used for metal analysis (B), and can provide quantitative information (C), it cannot distinguish between different oxidation states of the same element. AES measures the wavelengths of emitted light, which are specific to each element but do not depend on the oxidation state of the element.
Question 14: Which of the following parameters of Gustafson method to determine age can be appreciable macroscopically?
- A. Root resorption
- B. Cementum apposition
- C. Secondary dentin
- D. Attrition
Answer
Answer: D. Attrition
Explanation: The Gustafson method is a forensic technique used to estimate the age of an individual based on the examination of dental remains. Among the parameters included in this method, attrition is the only one that can be appreciated macroscopically. Attrition refers to the gradual wearing away of the tooth surface due to mastication and other factors, which is a visible and easily observable phenomenon. The other parameters, such as root resorption, cementum apposition, and secondary dentin formation, require microscopic or radiographic examination to be evaluated.
Question 15: Which of the following statements are correct in relation to scars?
(a) It is a fibrous tissue covered by epithelium
(b) It contains sweat glands
(c) It is pigmented and has hair follicles
(d) The shape of scars could be oval or elliptical in stab wounds
Code:
- A. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
- B. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
- C. (b) and (c) are correct.
- D. (a) and (d) are correct.
Answer
Answer: D. (a) and (d) are correct.
Explanation: A scar is a fibrous tissue formed over a healed wound or incision, covered by epithelium (a). Scars do not contain sweat glands (b is incorrect) or hair follicles (c is incorrect), and they are generally not pigmented. The shape of scars resulting from stab wounds can often be oval or elliptical (d), reflecting the shape of the weapon used. Therefore, the correct statements regarding scars are (a) and (d).
Question 16: Which of the following wounds resemble an incised wound?
- A. Imprint abrasion
- B. Graze abrasion
- C. Split laceration
- D. Avulsed laceration
Answer
Answer: C. Split laceration
Explanation: A split laceration is a type of wound that resembles an incised wound, which is a clean, sharp-edged cut caused by a sharp instrument like a knife or razor. Split lacerations are typically caused by blunt force trauma, where the skin is split or torn apart by the impact. The resulting wound can have clean, sharp edges similar to an incised wound, making it difficult to distinguish between the two types of wounds at times. Imprint abrasions, graze abrasions, and avulsed lacerations have distinctly different appearances from incised wounds.
Question 17: Which of the following statements are true regarding tattoos?
(a) It is derived from Polynesian word “ta tau” meaning to mark.
(b) The process is impregnation of a dye into the dermal layers of the skin.
(c) The leaves of “lawsonia inermics” are used for permanent tattooing.
(d) Tattoos can be erased by derm-abrasion.
Code:
- A. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
- B. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
- C. (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
- D. (b) and (c) are correct.
Answer
Answer: C. (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
Explanation: The word “tattoo” is derived from the Polynesian word “ta tau,” meaning “to mark” (a). The process of tattooing involves impregnating a dye into the dermal layers of the skin (b). While the leaves of “lawsonia inermis” (henna) are used for temporary body art, they are not used for permanent tattooing (c is incorrect). Tattoos can be partially or completely removed through dermabrasion, a procedure that involves removing the top layers of the skin (d). Therefore, the correct statements are (a), (b), and (d).
Question 18: Ancillary investigations in medicolegal autopsy include:
(a) Microbiology
(b) Toxicology
(c) Radiology
(d) Angiography
Code:
- A. (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct.
- B. (a), (b), (c) are correct.
- C. (b), (c), (d) are correct.
- D. (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer
Answer: B. (a), (b), (c) are correct.
Explanation: Ancillary investigations are additional tests or examinations that are often conducted during a medicolegal autopsy to gather more information and support the findings. These investigations include microbiology (a), which involves analyzing bacterial or viral infections; toxicology (b), which examines the presence and levels of drugs, poisons, or other substances; and radiology (c), which involves imaging techniques like X-rays or CT scans. Angiography (d), which involves visualizing blood vessels, is not routinely performed as an ancillary investigation in a standard medicolegal autopsy.
Question 19: Which of the following is the name of finger prints classification system based on ten fingers?
- A. Galton’s system
- B. Faulds system
- C. Bertillon system
- D. Henry system
Answer
Answer: D. Henry system
Explanation: The Henry system, also known as the Henry Classification System, is the fingerprint classification system based on the analysis of all ten fingers. It was developed by Sir Edward Richard Henry, an Inspector General of Police in British India, and was first introduced in 1901. The Henry system categorizes fingerprints into primary groupings based on the ridge patterns, such as loops, whorls, and arches, and further sub-classifies them based on specific ridge characteristics. This comprehensive system revolutionized fingerprint identification and is widely used in forensic science and law enforcement agencies worldwide.
Question 20: Thin layer of which metals are coated to develop latent finger prints using VMD method:
- A. Gold and Lead
- B. Gold and Aluminium
- C. Gold and Zinc
- D. Gold and Silver
Answer
Answer: C. Gold and Zinc
Explanation: The Vacuum Metal Deposition (VMD) method is a technique used for developing latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces. In this method, a thin layer of metal is deposited onto the surface under vacuum conditions. The metal commonly used in the VMD process is a combination of gold and zinc. The gold-zinc alloy is vaporized and deposited onto the surface, selectively adhering to the fingerprint residue. This creates a visible metallic film that reveals the fingerprint pattern, allowing for further analysis and identification.
Question 21: Assertion (A): Request standard writing may not be ideal standard for comparison.
Reason (R): Request standards can be obtained without the limitation of amount of writing but may not be contemporary.
Code:
- A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
- B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
- C. (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
- D. (A) is correct, but (R) is not.
Answer
Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Explanation: In the context of handwriting analysis and comparison, request standard writing refers to samples of writing obtained specifically for the purpose of comparison, typically at the request of an investigator or expert. While these requested samples can provide a sufficient amount of writing for comparison, they may not always be the ideal standard because they can be influenced by factors such as the writer’s awareness of being observed or the lack of natural writing conditions. Additionally, request standards may not necessarily reflect the contemporary writing habits of the individual at the time of the questioned document. Therefore, both the assertion (A) and the reason (R) are correct.
Question 22: Match the following:
List-I
(a) Amido black
(b) SPR
(c) Ninhydrin
(d) Gentian violet
List-II
(i) Paper
(ii) Adhesive side of the tape
(iii) Finger prints in blood
(iv) Wet surfaces
Code:
- A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
- B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
- C. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
- D. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer
Answer: C. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Explanation: The correct matching between the lists is as follows: (a) Amido black – (iii) Finger prints in blood (used to enhance and visualize blood fingerprints) (b) SPR – (iv) Wet surfaces (Small Particle Reagent is used to develop latent fingerprints on wet or damp surfaces) (c) Ninhydrin – (i) Paper (Ninhydrin is a reagent commonly used to develop latent fingerprints on porous surfaces like paper) (d) Gentian violet – (ii) Adhesive side of the tape (Gentian violet is a dye used to enhance and visualize latent fingerprints on adhesive surfaces like tape).
Question 23: Which of the following can be said as interlineation?
- A. Writing between two words
- B. Writing between two letters
- C. Writing between two lines
- D. Writing between two paras
Answer
Answer: C. Writing between two lines
Explanation: Interlineation refers to the act of inserting additional writing between the lines of an existing text. This is often done to add supplementary information, corrections, or clarifications to the original text. Interlineation is distinct from writing between words (which may be considered an insertion), between letters (which may be considered an alteration), or between paragraphs (which may be considered an addition). The term “interlineation” specifically refers to the writing that occurs between the lines of an existing document.
Question 24: Photosensitive nature of reaction of which of the following reagent with sweat residue allows to develop latent finger prints in dark only:
- A. Silver nitrate
- B. Indane dione
- C. Super glue
- D. Amido black
Answer
Answer: D. Amido black
Explanation: Amido black is a reagent used in forensic science to develop latent fingerprints on porous surfaces, such as paper or cardboard. The reaction between amido black and the amino acids present in sweat residue is photosensitive, meaning it is sensitive to light. This photosensitive nature allows for the development of latent fingerprints in the dark or under low-light conditions. When amido black is applied to a surface and exposed to light, the reaction with sweat residue is inhibited, preventing the formation of visible fingerprints. Therefore, the processing and development of fingerprints using amido black must be carried out in the dark or under controlled lighting conditions.
Question 25: Nest of sieve is generally used for the analysis of:
- A. Lead shots
- B. Wet mortar
- C. Pharmaceutical compounds
- D. Explosive
Answer
Answer: B. Wet mortar
Explanation: A nest of sieves, which consists of a series of sieves with progressively smaller mesh sizes stacked on top of each other, is commonly used for the analysis of wet mortar samples in forensic investigations. Wet mortar, which is a mixture of cement, sand, and water, is often found at crime scenes involving construction or renovation. By passing the wet mortar sample through the nest of sieves, the various components (cement, sand particles of different sizes) can be separated and analyzed, providing valuable information for forensic purposes.
Question 26: In case of examination of paints, pyrolysis Gas Chromatography is useful for the characterization of:
- A. Pigment
- B. Lacquer
- C. Binder
- D. Solvent
Answer
Answer: C. Binder
Explanation: In the forensic examination of paints, pyrolysis gas chromatography (Py-GC) is a valuable technique for characterizing the binder component of the paint sample. The binder is the non-volatile component of the paint that acts as a film-forming material, holding the pigments and other additives together. Py-GC involves thermally decomposing the paint sample, vaporizing the binder, and then separating and identifying the resulting compounds using gas chromatography. This technique provides information about the chemical composition and type of binder used in the paint, which can be crucial in comparing and differentiating various paint samples.
Question 27: The Scientific Working Group for shoeprint and Tire Tread Evidence “SWGTREAD” was created by:
- A. CBI
- B. FBI
- C. Scotland yard
- D. NYPD
Answer
Answer: B. FBI
Explanation: The Scientific Working Group for Shoeprint and Tire Tread Evidence (SWGTREAD) was created by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) in the United States. SWGTREAD is a collaborative effort among forensic experts, law enforcement agencies, and academic institutions, focused on developing and promoting best practices, guidelines, and standards for the examination and interpretation of shoeprint and tire tread evidence. The group aims to improve the quality and consistency of forensic examinations in this area, ultimately enhancing the value of such evidence in legal proceedings.
Question 28: As “Wool” is obtained from sheep hair likewise “mohair” is obtained from:
- A. Camel hair
- B. Angora goat hair
- C. Asiatic goat hair
- D. Vicuna hair
Answer
Answer: B. Angora goat hair
Explanation: Mohair is a type of fiber obtained from the hair of the Angora goat, a breed of domestic goat known for its long, silky hair. Just as wool is obtained from the fleece of sheep, mohair is derived from the fleece of Angora goats. Mohair fibers are known for their luster, strength, and resilience, and they are commonly used in the production of high-quality textiles, such as suits, sweaters, and scarves. The other options, camel hair, Asiatic goat hair, and vicuna hair, are obtained from different animal sources.
Question 29: In which type of fiber, nodes are found?
- A. Cotton
- B. Wool
- C. Silk
- D. Nylon
Answer
Answer: A. Cotton
Explanation: Nodes are characteristic features found in cotton fibers. Cotton fibers are derived from the seed hairs of the cotton plant and exhibit a unique appearance under microscopic examination. Nodes are thick, irregular regions along the length of the cotton fiber, which are formed during the growth and development of the fiber. These nodes serve as distinguishing characteristics that can aid in the identification and differentiation of cotton fibers from other types of fibers in forensic fiber analysis.
Question 30: The formula for calculating the correct rate of twist for firearm was given by:
- A. Gaspard Kollner
- B. George Greenhill
- C. Greener
- D. Minie
Answer
Answer: B. George Greenhill
Explanation: The formula for calculating the correct rate of twist for firearms was developed by George Greenhill, a British mathematician and artillery expert. The rate of twist, also known as the rifling twist rate, refers to the number of revolutions a bullet makes per unit of barrel length as it travels down the barrel of a rifled firearm. Greenhill’s formula takes into account various factors, such as the projectile’s shape, weight, and velocity, to determine the optimal twist rate for stabilizing the bullet’s flight and ensuring accurate shooting. This formula has played a significant role in the design and manufacturing of modern rifled firearms.
Question 31: “Magnum Nitro Express” is a term associated with:
- A. Cartridge
- B. Bullet
- C. Pellet
- D. Jacket Bullet
Answer
Answer: A. Cartridge
Explanation: The term “Magnum Nitro Express” is associated with cartridges, specifically large-caliber rifle cartridges designed for hunting large and dangerous game. The “Nitro” in the name refers to the use of nitrocellulose-based smokeless gunpowder, which replaced the earlier black powder propellants. The “Express” term indicates that these cartridges were designed for long-range, high-velocity shooting. Magnum Nitro Express cartridges were developed in the late 19th and early 20th centuries and are known for their powerful performance and ability to effectively take down large animals like elephants, rhinos, and Cape buffalo.
Question 32: Which of the following technique has not been routinely used in the forensic analysis of explosives?
- A. NMR
- B. MS
- C. FTIR
- D. TLC
Answer
Answer: A. NMR
Explanation: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is not routinely used in the forensic analysis of explosives. While NMR is a powerful analytical technique used in various fields, including chemistry and structural biology, it has limited applications in the analysis of explosives due to several reasons. Explosives are typically present in trace amounts at crime scenes, and NMR requires relatively large sample quantities. Additionally, many explosives contain paramagnetic species that can interfere with the NMR signal. Other techniques like mass spectrometry (MS), Fourier-transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR), and thin-layer chromatography (TLC) are more commonly employed for the forensic analysis of explosives.
Question 33: In the early 19th Century who among the following revolutionised the ignition of gun powder by using highly sensitive mercury fulminate:
- A. John Browning
- B. Henry VIII
- C. Mann Le Bovrgeoys
- D. Alexander John Forsyth
Answer
Answer: D. Alexander John Forsyth
Explanation: Alexander John Forsyth, a Scottish minister and chemist, revolutionized the ignition of gunpowder in the early 19th century by introducing the use of highly sensitive mercury fulminate as a primary explosive. Prior to this, gunpowder was ignited using flint and steel or other less reliable methods. Forsyth’s discovery of the explosive properties of mercury fulminate led to its adoption as a reliable and efficient primer for igniting gunpowder in firearms. This advancement played a crucial role in the development of modern percussion cap ignition systems, significantly improving the reliability and safety of firearms.
Question 34: Organophosphorus compounds are powerful inhibitors of which of the following:
- A. Cholinesterase
- B. Acetylcholinesterase
- C. Diacetylcholinesterase
- D. Monoacetylcholinesterase
Answer
Answer: B. Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation: Organophosphorus compounds are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the body. Acetylcholine is involved in various physiological processes, including muscle contractions, heart rate regulation, and neuronal signaling. When acetylcholinesterase is inhibited by organophosphorus compounds, acetylcholine accumulates in the synaptic clefts, leading to overstimulation of the cholinergic receptors and potentially causing severe toxicity symptoms, such as respiratory distress, seizures, and paralysis. This mechanism of action makes organophosphorus compounds highly toxic and commonly used as pesticides and chemical warfare agents.
Question 35: Washburn index, that helps in the determination of sex, from which of the following bone?
- A. Skull
- B. Pelvis
- C. Scapula
- D. Vertebra
Answer
Answer: B. Pelvis
Explanation: The Washburn index is a metric used in forensic anthropology to determine the sex of an individual based on measurements of the vertebral column. Specifically, it involves measuring the anteroposterior and transverse diameters of the first and second cervical vertebrae (atlas and axis). These measurements are then used to calculate the Washburn index, which exhibits differences between males and females due to anatomical variations in the vertebral dimensions. The Washburn index is particularly useful when other skeletal elements, such as the skull or pelvis, are fragmented or unavailable for sex determination.
Question 36: Which of the following is correctly matched?
List-I
(a) Sex
(b) Stature
(c) Race
(d) Age
List-II
(i) Karl Pearson formula
(ii) Haase’s Rule
(iii) Washburn index
(iv) Cephalic index
(v) Steeles formula
Code:
- A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
- B. (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
- C. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
- D. (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
Answer
Answer: D. (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
Explanation: The correct matching between List-I and List-II is as follows: (a) Sex – (v) Steeles formula (used for sex determination based on cranial measurements) (b) Stature – (ii) Haase’s Rule (used for estimating stature from long bone measurements) (c) Race – (iv) Cephalic index (used for racial classification based on cranial measurements) (d) Age – (iii) Washburn index (used for age estimation based on vertebral measurements) The Karl Pearson formula (i) is used for various statistical analyses in forensic anthropology but is not directly associated with any of the listed parameters.
Question 37: The articular surface of which of the following bones help in reliable age determination:
- A. Radius
- B. Pubis
- C. Sternum
- D. Pisiform
Answer
Answer: B. Pubis
Explanation: The articular surface of the pubic bone, specifically the pubic symphysis, provides reliable information for age determination in forensic anthropology. The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint that connects the pubic bones in the anterior pelvis. As an individual ages, the surface of the pubic symphysis undergoes predictable morphological changes, such as the formation of ridges, furrows, and erosion. These age-related changes in the pubic symphysis can be analyzed and compared to reference standards to estimate the age of an individual at the time of death.
Question 38: In which of the following historical case was a body identified by jaw bones and dental structures from the charred remains?
- A. Buck-Ruxton case
- B. Parkman Webster case
- C. Bhowal Sanyasi case
- D. Tandoor murder case
Answer
Answer: B. Parkman Webster case
Explanation: The Parkman-Webster case, also known as the Parkman-Harvard Murder, was a famous 19th-century murder case in Boston, Massachusetts. In this case, the victim, Dr. George Parkman, was identified from charred and dismembered remains, including jaw bones and dental structures. The identification was made possible by the unique dental work and fillings present in Parkman’s teeth, which were preserved despite the extensive burning of the remains. This case is considered a landmark in the history of forensic dentistry and the application of dental evidence in criminal investigations.
Question 39: Smokable form of cocaine is obtained by treating which of the following:
- A. Coca leaf with sulphuric acid
- B. Coca leaf with Hydrochloric acid
- C. Cocaine sulphate with baking soda
- D. Cocaine Hydrochloride with baking soda
Answer
Answer: D. Cocaine Hydrochloride with baking soda
Explanation: The smokable form of cocaine, commonly known as crack cocaine, is obtained by treating cocaine hydrochloride (the salt form of cocaine) with baking soda (sodium bicarbonate). This process, known as freebasing, involves removing the hydrochloride salt from the cocaine molecule, resulting in a free base form that can be smoked. When cocaine hydrochloride is mixed with baking soda and heated, a chemical reaction occurs, producing a solid, rock-like substance that can be smoked and rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream, producing an intense and short-lived high.
Question 40: Antibodies are found in the blood _______.
- A. Serum
- B. Plasma
- C. RBC
- D. WBC
Answer
Answer: A. Serum
Explanation: Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system to recognize and neutralize foreign substances, such as pathogens or toxins. These antibodies are primarily found in the serum component of blood. Serum is the liquid portion of blood that remains after the blood has been allowed to clot and the clot (containing red blood cells, white blood cells, and other cellular components) has been removed. The serum contains various proteins, including antibodies, which are essential for the body’s immune response and are used in various diagnostic and therapeutic applications in medicine and forensic science.
Question 41: Saliva is largely water, containing small quantities of:
- A. Electrolytes, Proteins, Antibodies and Enzymes
- B. Proteins, Antibodies and Harmones
- C. Electrolytes, Acids and Proteins
- D. Electrolytes, Harmones and Enzymes
Answer
Answer: A. Electrolytes, Proteins, Antibodies and Enzymes
Explanation: Saliva is a complex biological fluid produced by the salivary glands. It is primarily composed of water but also contains various other components in small quantities. These components include electrolytes (such as sodium, potassium, and chloride), proteins (like mucins, amylase, and antibodies), antibodies (immunoglobulins), and enzymes (such as amylase and lipase). The presence of these components in saliva plays crucial roles in digestion, maintaining oral health, and providing valuable forensic evidence in criminal investigations.
Question 42: The Cortex derives’ its major forensic importance because it is embedded with pigment granules that gives hair its:
- A. Strength
- B. Length
- C. Colour
- D. Both length and strength
Answer
Answer: C. Colour
Explanation: The cortex is the central and most substantial part of the hair shaft. It derives its major forensic importance because it is embedded with pigment granules, known as melanin, which give hair its color. The distribution, concentration, and composition of these pigment granules within the cortex determine the specific color of an individual’s hair. This feature is crucial in forensic hair analysis, as it can provide valuable information for identifying individuals, establishing associations, or excluding potential suspects based on hair color comparisons.
Question 43: Jaffe test used for examination of urine sample is a ______ method.
- A. Capillary
- B. Ultraviolet
- C. Both Capillary and Colorometric
- D. Colorometric
Answer
Answer: D. Colorometric
Explanation: The Jaffe test, also known as the Jaffe reaction, is a colorometric method used for the examination of urine samples in forensic and clinical settings. It is a chemical test that involves the reaction of creatinine, a waste product present in urine, with picric acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol). This reaction produces a distinctive orange-red color, the intensity of which is proportional to the concentration of creatinine in the urine sample. By measuring the color intensity using a colorimeter or spectrophotometer, the Jaffe test allows for the quantitative determination of creatinine levels, which can provide valuable information about kidney function and overall health.
Question 44: In PCR reaction, the annealing temperature depends on:
- A. AT contents of sequence
- B. GC content of sequence
- C. Primer Dimer
- D. Concentration of Mg used in reaction
Answer
Answer: B. GC content of sequence
Explanation: In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), the annealing temperature is primarily determined by the guanine-cytosine (GC) content of the target DNA sequence. DNA sequences with higher GC content require higher annealing temperatures, as the hydrogen bonds between G and C base pairs are stronger than those between A and T base pairs. The annealing temperature is crucial for ensuring specific binding of the primers to the target DNA sequence during the PCR cycle. It is typically calculated based on the melting temperature (Tm) of the primers, which is influenced by the GC content of the sequence. Other factors, such as primer dimer formation and magnesium concentration, can also affect the optimum annealing temperature, but the GC content is the primary determinant.
Question 45: The forensic DNA analysis of fecal matter is possible because of the presence of:
- A. Tracheal epithelial cells
- B. Intestinal epithelial cells
- C. Vaginal epithelial cells
- D. Alveolar epithelial cells
Answer
Answer: B. Intestinal epithelial cells
Explanation: The forensic DNA analysis of fecal matter (stool) is possible due to the presence of intestinal epithelial cells. These cells are shed from the lining of the intestines and are present in fecal matter. Although fecal matter primarily consists of digested food, water, and bacterial cells, it also contains sloughed-off intestinal epithelial cells that carry the individual’s DNA. By extracting and analyzing the DNA from these cells, forensic scientists can potentially identify the source of the fecal matter, which can be valuable evidence in cases involving sexual assault, identification of suspects, or linking individuals to crime scenes.
Question 46: Diffracting crystal in XRFS isolates which of the following?
- A. Narrow energy bands
- B. Wide Wavelength bands
- C. Wide energy bands
- D. Narrow Wavelength bands
Answer
Answer: D. Narrow Wavelength bands
Explanation: In X-Ray Fluorescence Spectroscopy (XRFS), the diffracting crystal plays a crucial role in isolating and selecting specific wavelengths of X-rays for analysis. The diffracting crystal, typically made of materials like lithium fluoride or a synthetic multilayer structure, acts as a dispersive element that separates the polychromatic X-rays (containing multiple wavelengths) into narrow wavelength bands based on the principles of X-ray diffraction. By isolating these narrow wavelength bands, the diffracting crystal allows for the selective detection and analysis of characteristic X-ray emissions from different elements present in the sample, enabling their identification and quantification.
Question 47: Which of the following elements is used in plasma desorption?
- A. Uranium
- B. Thorium
- C. Californium
- D. Polonium
Answer
Answer: C. Californium
Explanation: In plasma desorption mass spectrometry (PDMS), the element californium (Cf) is commonly used as the source of ions for desorbing and ionizing large biomolecules like proteins and nucleic acids. Californium-252 (252Cf) is a radioactive isotope that undergoes spontaneous fission, emitting high-energy particles (fission fragments) that create a plasma when they hit a surface. This plasma is used to desorb and ionize the sample molecules, allowing for their analysis using mass spectrometry. The use of californium as the ionization source in PDMS enables the study of large, non-volatile biomolecules, making it a valuable technique in areas such as proteomics and biochemistry.
Question 48: The neutron Activation Analysis Unit for Forensic Science was established in 1971 at which of the following places:
- A. Madras Atomic Power Station, Kalpakkam
- B. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Trombay
- C. Narora Atomic Power Station, Uttar Pradesh
- D. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station, Gujarat
Answer
Answer: B. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Trombay
Explanation: The Neutron Activation Analysis (NAA) Unit for Forensic Science was established in 1971 at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in Trombay, Mumbai. BARC is a premier multi-disciplinary research center in India, dedicated to the peaceful applications of nuclear energy. The NAA Unit at BARC has played a crucial role in the development and application of neutron activation analysis techniques for forensic purposes. NAA is a highly sensitive analytical technique used for elemental analysis, particularly in trace evidence examination. By irradiating samples with neutrons and analyzing the resulting gamma-ray emissions, NAA can detect and quantify various elements present in forensic samples, such as hair, gunshot residue, and trace evidence.
Question 49: The ideal method of collecting and packing of physical evidence for its transportation to a forensic science laboratory mainly depends on:
- A. Nature of transportation available
- B. Nature of evidence
- C. Nature of investigator
- D. Nature of scene of crime
Answer
Answer: B. Nature of evidence
Explanation: The ideal method of collecting and packing physical evidence for transportation to a forensic science laboratory primarily depends on the nature of the evidence itself. Different types of evidence, such as biological samples, trace evidence, firearms, explosives, or documents, require specific handling, packaging, and preservation techniques to maintain their integrity and prevent contamination or degradation during transportation. The nature of the evidence dictates the appropriate collection methods, storage conditions, and packaging materials to be used. Factors like the risk of leakage, fragility, or exposure to environmental conditions are considered when determining the optimal method for collecting and packing evidence for forensic analysis.
Question 50: A foot wear print observed on the cloths worn by a victim of an alleged murder case could be best lifted by using:
- A. Plaster of Paris
- B. Liquid wax
- C. Electrostatic dust print lifting device
- D. Adhesive tape
Answer
Answer: C. Electrostatic dust print lifting device
Explanation: When a footwear print is observed on clothing or fabric, the most effective method for lifting and preserving the impression is by using an electrostatic dust print lifting device. This device works by applying an electrostatic charge to a specialized film or lifting material, which attracts and adheres to the dust particles or residue that make up the footwear impression. The electrostatic lifting technique is particularly useful for collecting footwear impressions from fabrics or other porous surfaces, as it can capture intricate details and patterns without damaging the substrate. Other methods, such as plaster casts or adhesive tapes, may be less suitable for fabric surfaces due to the risk of damage or inadequate adherence.