2014 June NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper, Part -1

Answer: B. Kolkata Central Forensic Science Lab.

Explanation: DNA typing, also known as DNA profiling or DNA fingerprinting, is a crucial forensic technique used to identify individuals based on their unique genetic makeup. In India, the first facility for DNA typing in a forensic science laboratory was introduced at the Kolkata Central Forensic Science Lab. This lab played a pioneering role in establishing DNA analysis capabilities for forensic investigations in the country.

Answer: B. Crime Scene Management

Explanation: Tele Forensics Technology is a cutting-edge approach that leverages telecommunication and remote sensing technologies for effective crime scene management. It allows forensic experts to remotely assess and analyze crime scenes, provide guidance, and collaborate with on-site investigators. This technology enhances the efficiency and accuracy of crime scene investigations, particularly in cases where physical access is challenging or hazardous.

Answer: B. (a) and (c) are correct.

Explanation: The mechanical system of a compound microscope consists of the base, which provides stability and support, and the body tube, which houses the optical components and allows adjustment of the focus. The condenser and illumination are part of the optical system and not the mechanical system of a compound microscope. The base and body tube are the primary mechanical components that enable the proper functioning and positioning of the microscope.

Answer: C. Corpus delicti

Explanation: Corpus delicti is a legal term that refers to the essential facts or elements that prove a crime has been committed. It is crucial in criminal cases to establish the corpus delicti, which includes evidence that a specific crime occurred and that the defendant was involved in committing the crime. Without proving the corpus delicti, a conviction cannot be obtained, even if there is a confession or other circumstantial evidence.

Answer: A. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The assertion that the answer in a leading question asked during a trial is given in a yes or no format is correct. Leading questions are designed to elicit specific responses and often suggest the desired answer. However, the reason provided is incorrect. Leading questions are typically not allowed during direct examination (examination-in-chief) of one’s own witness but can be used during cross-examination of the opposing party’s witness.

Answer: D. A photoemissive tube

Explanation: A monochromator is an optical device used to isolate a specific wavelength or narrow range of wavelengths from a broader spectrum of light. It typically consists of an entrance slit, a collimator to produce parallel rays of light, and a grating or prism to disperse the light into its constituent wavelengths. A photoemissive tube, on the other hand, is a detector used to measure the intensity of the selected wavelength and is not a part of the monochromator itself.

Answer: B. Delhi

Explanation: The Central Detective Training Schools in India are located in various cities to provide specialized training to law enforcement personnel in investigation techniques, forensic sciences, and related fields. Among the given options, Delhi does not have a Central Detective Training School. These schools are present in Kolkata, Hyderabad, and Chandigarh, among other locations across the country.

Answer: B. Near-Infrared spectrometry

Explanation: Near-Infrared (NIR) spectrometry is a valuable analytical technique for analyzing mixtures of aromatic amines. Aromatic amines are organic compounds containing an amino group (-NH2) attached to an aromatic ring. NIR spectrometry can differentiate and quantify these compounds based on their characteristic absorption patterns in the near-infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. This technique is widely used in various fields, including forensic analysis, for the identification and characterization of aromatic amines and their mixtures.

Answer: C. Triglycerides

Explanation: The Physical developer is a fingerprint development technique used to reveal latent (invisible) fingermarks on porous surfaces like paper, cardboard, or wood. It reacts specifically with the triglyceride components present in sweat residue left behind by the friction ridges of the fingerprint. The reaction between the Physical developer and the triglycerides results in the formation of a dark gray or black deposit, making the fingerprint ridges visible and enhancing their contrast against the background.

Answer: B. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Explanation: The assertion that retention time is used for identifying unknown compounds in gas chromatography (GC) is correct. Retention time is a characteristic property of a compound and is determined by its interaction with the stationary phase in the GC column. However, the reason provided is incorrect. Retention time is not the time taken by a compound to travel from the column to the recorder; rather, it is the time taken by a compound to elute (exit) from the column after injection.

Answer: A. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation: The correct matching of detectors with their respective components is as follows: (a) Differential Thermal conductivity detector – (iii) Wheatstone bridge circuit (b) Flame ionization detector – (i) Polarizing electrode (c) Electron capture detector – (iv) Radioactive foil (d) HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) – (ii) A refractive index monitor

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: SDS-PAGE (Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate-Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis) is a widely used analytical technique for separating and analyzing proteins based on their molecular weight. In an SDS-PAGE, all the statements given in the options are true. SDS is a detergent that denatures and unfolds proteins, coating them with a uniform negative charge. This results in all proteins having the same charge-to-mass ratio. Smaller proteins then migrate more rapidly through the polyacrylamide gel due to their lower molecular weight, allowing for their separation and analysis.

Answer: A. 5 – 10 %

Explanation: The AB blood group is the rarest of the four major blood groups (A, B, AB, and O). Its approximate frequency in the general population is around 5-10%. The most common blood group is O, followed by A and B. The AB blood group results from the co-inheritance of the A and B antigens, which is relatively rare in most populations. The specific frequency of the AB blood group can vary slightly among different ethnic groups and geographical regions.

Answer: D. Thermocouples

Explanation: In gas chromatography, various detectors are used to detect and quantify the separated components. TCD (Thermal Conductivity Detector), FID (Flame Ionization Detector), and ECD (Electron Capture Detector) are commonly used detectors for gas chromatography. Thermocouples, on the other hand, are not used as detectors in gas chromatography. Thermocouples are temperature-measuring devices that work on the principle of the thermoelectric effect and are used in various applications but not as detectors in gas chromatography.

Answer: B. Phenolphthalein

Explanation: The Kastle-Meyer presumptive test for the detection of blood is also known as the Phenolphthalein test. This test utilizes the oxidizing properties of the heme component in blood to catalyze the oxidation of phenolphthalein, resulting in a pink or red color change. The presence of this color change indicates a presumptive positive result for the presence of blood. However, it should be noted that this test can produce false positives with certain other oxidizing agents, and further confirmatory tests are often required.

Answer: B. Schizophrenia

Explanation: Schizophrenia is a severe mental disorder characterized by distorted thinking, hallucinations, delusions, and impaired cognitive abilities. It is classified as a psychotic disorder and is not considered a neurosis. Neuroses, on the other hand, are a group of mental disorders characterized by anxiety, fear, obsessive thoughts, and distressing emotions, but without a complete break from reality. Anxiety, hypochondriasis (excessive preoccupation with health concerns), and phobias (irrational fears) are examples of neurotic disorders mentioned in the list.

Answer: C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Explanation: The assertion that all humans have A antigens in their blood is incorrect. The presence of A antigens on red blood cells determines the A blood group, but not all individuals have these antigens. Similarly, the reason stating that it produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies is also incorrect. Individuals with the A blood group produce only anti-B antibodies, while those with the B blood group produce only anti-A antibodies. The production of both anti-A and anti-B antibodies occurs in individuals with the O blood group, where neither the A nor B antigens are present.

Answer: A. Probes

Explanation: Short fragments of DNA labeled with radioactive tags or other detectable labels are known as DNA probes. These probes are used in various molecular biology techniques, such as Southern blotting, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), and DNA microarrays, to detect and identify specific sequences of interest within larger DNA samples. The radioactive or fluorescent labels on the probes allow for their visualization and detection when they hybridize or bind to their complementary target sequences.

Answer: A. Hexagonal

Explanation: The Urea Nitrate crystal test is a qualitative analytical method used to detect the presence of urea in urine samples. When urea reacts with nitric acid in this test, it forms hexagonal-shaped crystals of urea nitrate. The formation of these characteristic hexagonal crystals under a microscope is indicative of the presence of urea in the urine sample being tested. This test is often used in forensic and clinical settings for the analysis of urine samples.

Answer: B. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation: The correct matching of poisons with their common names is as follows: (a) Marijuana – (iii) Pot (b) Mescaline – (i) Moons (c) Cocaine – (iv) Crack (d) Heroin – (ii) Smack Marijuana, also known as “pot,” is derived from the cannabis plant and is often used as a recreational drug. Mescaline is a psychedelic compound found in certain cacti, with the common street name “moons.” Cocaine is a highly addictive stimulant drug that is sometimes referred to as “crack” when in its free-base form. Heroin, an opioid drug, is commonly known by the street name “smack.”

Answer: C. C40

Explanation: Furnace oil, also known as black oil, is a heavy fuel oil derived from the fractional distillation of crude oil. It consists primarily of hydrocarbons with carbon chain lengths greater than C40 (containing more than 40 carbon atoms). These longer-chain hydrocarbons have higher boiling points and are less volatile, making them suitable for use as a fuel in industrial furnaces, boilers, and other heavy-duty applications. The composition of furnace oil varies depending on the source and refining process, but it typically contains a complex mixture of aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbons with carbon numbers ranging from C40 to C70 or higher.

Answer: D. Alcohol dehydrogenase

Explanation: Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) is an enzyme primarily found in the liver that catalyzes the oxidation of ethanol (alcohol) to acetaldehyde. This reaction is the first step in the metabolic breakdown of alcohol in the body. Alcohol dehydrogenase requires the cofactor NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) to carry out this oxidation reaction. The acetaldehyde produced is then further metabolized by another enzyme, aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH), into acetic acid, which can be broken down into carbon dioxide and water for elimination from the body.

Answer: C. Synergistic effect

Explanation: The combined use of alcohol and dhatura (a plant containing tropane alkaloids like atropine and scopolamine) can lead to a synergistic effect, where the effects of both substances are amplified or enhanced. Dhatura, known for its anticholinergic properties, can cause delirium, hallucinations, and other adverse effects. When combined with alcohol, which is a central nervous system depressant, the synergistic effect can result in severe impairment, confusion, and potentially life-threatening consequences. This interaction highlights the importance of avoiding the concurrent use of alcohol and substances like dhatura.

Answer: C. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Explanation: The correct matching of paint pigments with their respective colors is as follows: (a) 2PbCo3 · Pb(OH)2 – (ii) White (b) Zinc chromate – (iii) Yellow (c) Ferric ferrocyanide – (i) Blue (d) Impure ferric oxide – (iv) Bluish red to pale red brown These pigments are commonly used in various types of paints and coatings. 2PbCo3 · Pb(OH)2 (lead white) is a white pigment, zinc chromate is a yellow pigment, ferric ferrocyanide (Prussian blue) is a blue pigment, and impure ferric oxide (red oxide) can produce reddish-brown shades.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Endrin, an organochlorine insecticide, was once widely used in agriculture and is referred to as “Plant Penicillin” due to its broad-spectrum activity against various insect pests and its importance in protecting crops. The assertion that Endrin is called “Plant Penicillin” is correct. The reason provided, stating that Endrin has a broad spectrum of activity against various insects and pests, is also correct. However, it is important to note that Endrin has been banned or severely restricted in many countries due to its high toxicity and environmental persistence.

Answer: B. C = 0.035

Explanation: The ballistics coefficient (C) is a dimensionless number used to describe the ability of a projectile to overcome air resistance during flight. It is a function of various factors, including the projectile’s shape, mass, and diameter. For LG shot, which refers to lead gunshot or shotgun pellets, the typical ballistics coefficient value is approximately C = 0.035. This value reflects the relatively low aerodynamic efficiency of spherical lead projectiles, which experience significant air resistance due to their shape.

Answer: D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Explanation: The correct chronological order of occurrence for the given firearms is as follows: 1. Match lock guns 2. Flint lock musket 3. Revolver 4. Assault rifle Match lock guns were among the earliest firearms, dating back to the 15th century. They were followed by the development of flint lock muskets in the 17th century. The revolver, a repeating firearm with a rotating cylinder, was invented in the early 19th century. Assault rifles, which are selective-fire rifles capable of automatic or burst fire, emerged in the 20th century.

Answer: A. Suspension of body by a ligature around the neck, body weight acting as constricting force.

Explanation: Hanging is a form of asphyxia caused by the suspension of the body by a ligature around the neck, where the body’s weight acts as the constricting force. This definition accurately captures the key elements of hanging, which involve the use of a ligature (such as a rope or cord) to compress the neck, leading to airway obstruction and ultimately death by asphyxiation. The suspension of the body is crucial, as it allows the body’s weight to tighten the ligature around the neck, constricting the airway and disrupting breathing.

Answer: B. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Explanation: The assertion that a questioned bullet and a test bullet can be compared positively using a comparison microscope is correct. Forensic ballistic examiners use comparison microscopes to analyze and compare the unique markings left on fired bullets by the firearm’s barrel and breech surfaces. However, the reason provided is incorrect. The breech block marks on fired bullets are not identical but rather exhibit unique characteristics that can be used for identification purposes. These marks are created by the breech block impacting the base of the cartridge case during firing, leaving distinct impressions that can be compared and matched to a specific firearm.

Answer: C. (a) and (d) are correct.

Explanation: Smokeless powders are propellants used in firearms and ammunition that burn without producing visible smoke. The common forms of smokeless powders are Ballistite and Cordite, which are made up of nitrocellulose and other additives. Ballistite is a double-base powder containing nitrocellulose and nitroglycerin, while Cordite is a triple-base powder containing nitrocellulose, nitroglycerin, and nitroguanidine. Dynamite and blasting gelatine sticks are high explosives used in mining and demolition work, not smokeless powders used in firearms.

Answer: B. Bread hair

Explanation: Bread hair, also known as vellus hair or downy hair, is the fine, short hair that covers most of the human body, except for the palms, soles, and some other areas. Bread hair is characterized by its relatively small diameter and a distinctive triangular cross-sectional shape when viewed under a microscope. This triangular shape helps differentiate bread hair from other types of hair, such as scalp hair (which typically has a circular or oval cross-section) or animal hair, and can be useful in forensic investigations involving hair analysis.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct in relation to the graying process of hair. Gray hair is characterized by a lack or significant reduction of melanin granules, which are responsible for hair pigmentation. The reason for this is the gradual loss of tyrosinase activity in the hair follicles. Tyrosinase is an enzyme involved in the production of melanin pigments. As people age, the activity of tyrosinase decreases, leading to a reduction in melanin synthesis and, consequently, the appearance of gray or white hair.

Answer: B. Polyvinyl acetate

Explanation: Rayon is a type of synthetic fiber made from regenerated cellulose. The different types of rayon include Cupramonium rayon, Polynosic rayon, and Viscose rayon. These types differ in the specific chemical processes used to produce the regenerated cellulose fibers. However, polyvinyl acetate is not a type of rayon. Polyvinyl acetate is a synthetic polymer made from vinyl acetate monomers and is used in a variety of applications, including adhesives, coatings, and paints, but it is not a form of regenerated cellulose fiber like rayon.

Answer: D. Rate of decrease in speed of a moving vehicle as a brake testing instrument.

Explanation: A decelerometer is an instrument used to measure the rate of deceleration or the rate of decrease in speed of a moving vehicle. It is particularly useful in evaluating the performance of braking systems and determining the effectiveness of brakes in slowing down or stopping a vehicle. Decelerometers are commonly employed in brake testing procedures, where they provide quantitative data on the vehicle’s deceleration rate, which is essential for assessing the braking system’s efficiency and compliance with safety standards.

Answer: D. (a) and (c) are correct.

Explanation: When analyzing walking patterns, protractors and measuring tapes are the most useful instruments. Protractors are used to measure the angles formed by the feet, legs, and other body parts during different phases of the walking cycle. Measuring tapes are essential for determining stride length, step length, and other linear measurements related to the walking pattern. Dividers and scales, while useful in other applications, are not as directly relevant for measuring the parameters of walking patterns.

Answer: B. Electrophoresis

Explanation: Electrophoresis is a technique used to separate charged molecules, such as proteins or nucleic acids, based on their size and charge. It is not commonly used for soil examination. The other methods listed, including the density gradient-tube method, thermo gravimetric method, and spectrographic analysis, are useful techniques for analyzing soil samples. The density gradient-tube method separates soil components based on density differences, the thermo gravimetric method determines the composition of soil by measuring weight changes upon heating, and spectrographic analysis identifies the elemental composition of soil through spectroscopic techniques.

Answer: B. (b) and (d) are correct.

Explanation: Portland cement is a widely used construction material, and its main components are calcium oxide (CaO) and silicon oxide (SiO2). These two compounds, along with smaller amounts of aluminium oxide and iron oxide, are the primary constituents of Portland cement. The calcium oxide and silicon oxide are derived from the calcination of limestone and clay, respectively, during the cement manufacturing process. These components react to form the calcium silicate compounds that give Portland cement its binding and strength properties. Magnesium oxide is not a primary component of Portland cement.

Answer: C. (b) and (d) are correct.

Explanation: Bottle glass, also known as soda-lime glass, is primarily composed of silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO). These two compounds, along with smaller amounts of sodium oxide and other additives, make up the main components of bottle glass. Manganese oxide (MnO) and zinc oxide (ZnO) are not typically present in the composition of bottle glass. MnO is sometimes used as a decolorizer in other types of glass, while ZnO is used in certain specialty glass formulations but not in standard bottle glass.

Answer: B. Bite marks

Explanation: The ABFO (American Board of Forensic Odontology) scale No. 2 is specifically designed for the analysis and documentation of bite marks. Bite marks are patterned injuries caused by the teeth of humans or animals, and their examination falls under the domain of forensic odontology. The ABFO scale No. 2 provides a standardized method for describing the characteristics and features of bite marks, facilitating their comparison and identification. It is not typically used for the analysis of tool marks, finger marks, or other types of impressions or marks.

Answer: B. Crown

Explanation: Enamel is the hard, protective outer layer that covers the crown of the tooth, which is the visible part above the gum line. Enamel is the hardest and most mineralized substance in the human body, consisting of hydroxyapatite crystals. It serves to protect the underlying dentin and pulp from mechanical forces and chemical attacks. Enamel is not present in the root of the tooth, nor is it found in the pulp or dentin layers, which are located beneath the enamel and crown.

Answer: B. Krogman W.M. & Iscan, M.Y.

Explanation: The book “Human Skeleton in Forensic Medicine” was co-authored by Wilton M. Krogman and Mehmet Yaşar Iscan. Krogman was a renowned physical anthropologist, and Iscan is a forensic anthropologist known for his contributions to the field of skeletal analysis. This book is considered a classic reference work in forensic anthropology and skeletal biology, providing comprehensive information on the human skeleton and its applications in forensic investigations and identifications.

Answer: A. 2102/2102

Explanation: The dental formula represents the number and types of teeth present in the primary (deciduous) and permanent dentitions. The dental formula for the primary set of human dentition, also known as the deciduous or milk teeth, is 2102/2102. This formula indicates that in each quadrant of the mouth, there are 2 incisors, 1 canine, and 2 molars, totaling 20 primary teeth. The “/” separates the upper and lower arches, each having the same tooth count and arrangement.

Answer: C. Allometry

Explanation: Allometry refers to the study of the proportional relationship between the size of various body parts and the overall body size or stature. It examines how the relative dimensions of different body components change as the overall size increases or decreases. Allometric principles are widely used in anthropology, forensics, and biology to estimate stature from skeletal remains or other body parts, as well as to understand growth patterns and morphological variations across different species or populations.

Answer: B. 2 years

Explanation: The metopic suture is a fibrous joint that separates the two halves of the frontal bone in the skull during early childhood. It typically fuses or closes by the age of 2 years in most individuals. The closure of the metopic suture is an important developmental milestone and is often used as a reference point in forensic anthropology and pediatric cranial assessments. In some cases, the metopic suture may persist beyond 2 years of age, but this is considered a variation rather than the norm.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Albert S. Osborn is considered a pioneer in the field of questioned document examination. He authored several influential works, including “Questioned Documents,” “The Problem of Proof,” and “Questioned Document Problems.” These books laid the foundation for modern questioned document examination techniques and principles, covering various aspects such as handwriting analysis, typewriting identification, ink and paper analysis, and the examination of erasures and alterations. Osborn’s contributions significantly advanced the field of forensic document examination and are widely recognized in the forensic science community.

Answer: C. Amino acids

Explanation: Indanedione is a chemical reagent used in forensic science to develop latent (invisible) fingerprints on porous surfaces like paper, cardboard, or untreated wood. It reacts with the amino acid components present in the sweat residue left behind by the friction ridges of a fingerprint. This reaction produces a fluorescent product that highlights the fingerprint ridges, making them visible under an appropriate light source. While sweat residue contains other components like urea, sodium chloride, and fatty acids, it is the amino acids that specifically react with Indanedione to develop latent fingermarks.

Answer: D. Hard evidence

Explanation: Cyanoacrylate, also known as “super glue,” is widely used in forensic science for developing latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces like glass, metal, or plastic. When cyanoacrylate is in a gel form, it is commercially referred to as “Hard evidence.” This gel formulation allows for easier application and better adhesion to various surfaces, enabling the visualization of fingerprints through the polymerization process. The “Hard evidence” term distinguishes it from the conventional liquid cyanoacrylate formulations used for fuming purposes.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: When collecting standards for comparison in forensic document examination, several factors are crucial to ensure accurate and reliable analysis. Contemporaneousness of writing refers to the standards being produced around the same time as the questioned document, accounting for any potential changes in handwriting over time. Similarity of the contents of the writing helps ensure that the standards represent the same writing style and conditions as the questioned document. Additionally, a sufficient amount of writing is necessary to capture natural variations and provide an adequate sample for comparison. All of these factors are important considerations when collecting appropriate standards for forensic handwriting or document analysis.

Answer: B. Second level details

Explanation: In the study of fingerprints, Galton’s details refer to the specific ridge characteristics or minutiae that make each fingerprint unique. These details are also known as second-level details or ridge details. Examples of Galton’s details include bifurcations (ridge splits), ridge endings, dots, and other minor ridge formations. These second-level details, along with the overall pattern type (first-level detail) and pores and edge contours (third-level details), form the basis of fingerprint identification and individualization in forensic science.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: The assertion that an exact superimposition of one’s handwriting is an indication of traced forgery is correct. In forensic document examination, when two handwritten samples are perfectly superimposed, it suggests that one sample was likely traced or copied from the other, rather than being naturally written. This is because natural handwriting exhibits variations due to factors such as muscle movement, writing position, and pen pressure. The reason provided is also correct. It is expected that two handwriting samples from the same individual will differ to some extent due to the presence of natural variations. Even when a person tries to replicate their own handwriting, there will be slight differences in letter formations, slant, spacing, and other features. This concept of natural variation is a fundamental principle in handwriting analysis and forgery detection.