2012 June NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper, Part -2

Answer: D. Osterburg & O’Hara

Explanation: The book “An Introduction to Criminalistics” was written by James Osterburg and Richard O’Hara, two prominent figures in the field of forensic science. This book is considered a foundational text and has been widely used in the education and training of forensic professionals.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: A proper sketch of the crime scene should include all the essential elements mentioned in the options. The north direction provides orientation, the scale helps in understanding the relative sizes and distances, and the legend explains the symbols or abbreviations used in the sketch. All these elements contribute to a comprehensive and accurate representation of the crime scene.

Answer: A. 3 inches

Explanation: When dealing with blood-stained soil evidence, it is essential to collect a control sample from an area close to the stain but uncontaminated. The control sample serves as a reference for comparison and should be taken within a short distance, typically 3 inches, to ensure that the soil composition and characteristics are as similar as possible to the stained area.

Answer: D. Wheel method

Explanation: In the investigation of an air crash, the wheel method of survey is considered the most useful. This method involves dividing the crash site into concentric circles or zones, with the epicenter being the point of initial impact. Evidence is systematically collected and documented within each zone, starting from the innermost circle and working outwards. This approach helps to organize and prioritize the collection of evidence based on proximity to the impact point.

Answer: A. 3 4 2 1

Explanation: The correct match between the individuals and their respective fields of expertise is:
(i) William Herschel – 3. Fingerprint (Herschel is credited with the first use of fingerprints as a means of identification)
(ii) Osborn – 4. Questioned document (Albert S. Osborn is considered the father of questioned document examination)
(iii) Krogman – 2. Forensic Anthropology (Wilton M. Krogman was a pioneer in the field of forensic anthropology)
(iv) Hatcher – 1. Forensic Ballistics (Julian S. Hatcher made significant contributions to the study of firearms and ballistics)

Answer: D. Incised wound

Explanation: Bevelling is a characteristic feature observed in incised wounds, which are caused by sharp-edged instruments like knives or razors. Bevelling refers to the sloping or angled appearance of the wound’s edges, where one side is more undercut than the other. This bevelling can provide valuable information about the direction of the instrument’s movement and the angle of attack during the infliction of the wound.

Answer: C. Protection of crime scene, photography of crime scene, collection and dispatch of physical evidence, interview of witness

Explanation: The proper sequence of steps in a crime scene investigation is as follows: 1. Protect the crime scene to preserve evidence and restrict access. 2. Photograph the crime scene to document its initial condition. 3. Collect and properly package any physical evidence for laboratory analysis. 4. Interview witnesses after the scene has been processed to avoid contamination or alteration of evidence.

Answer: D. NMR

Explanation: Spin-spin coupling is a phenomenon observed in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy. It occurs when the magnetic spin of one nucleus in a molecule influences the magnetic spin of neighboring nuclei. This coupling leads to the splitting of NMR signals, providing valuable information about the chemical environment and connectivity of atoms within the molecule.

Answer: B. X-ray tube

Explanation: In X-ray Fluorescence (XRF) spectrometry, the excitation source used to generate characteristic X-rays from the sample is an X-ray tube. The X-ray tube produces high-energy X-rays that interact with the atoms in the sample, causing them to emit characteristic X-rays specific to the elements present. These emitted X-rays are then detected and analyzed to determine the elemental composition of the sample.

Answer: A. Atomic Absorption Spectrometer

Explanation: The Electrodeless Discharge Lamp (EDL) is a type of light source used in atomic absorption spectrometers. It produces intense, narrow-line radiation without the use of electrodes, which can introduce impurities into the system. The EDL operates by creating a high-frequency electromagnetic field that excites the atoms in a gaseous sample, causing them to emit characteristic radiation for atomic absorption measurements.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: A monochromator is an optical device used to isolate a narrow band of wavelengths from a broader spectrum of light. The basic requirements of a monochromator include: 1. Resolution: The ability to separate closely spaced wavelengths. 2. Spectral Range: The range of wavelengths that the monochromator can handle. 3. Dispersion: The ability to spread out different wavelengths spatially, allowing for their separation. All three factors are essential for a monochromator to effectively isolate and analyze specific wavelengths of interest.

Answer: A. IR Spectrometry

Explanation: Infrared (IR) spectrometry is a technique that provides a unique “fingerprint” of a chemical structure. Each molecule has a characteristic vibration pattern that is reflected in its IR absorption spectrum. This spectrum, which shows the absorption of infrared radiation at different wavelengths, is highly specific to the molecular structure and can be used for identification and characterization of compounds.

Answer: B. Vapour state

Explanation: Mass spectrometry is an analytical technique that requires the sample to be in the vapor or gaseous state. The sample is vaporized and ionized, and the resulting ions are separated based on their mass-to-charge ratio. This separation allows for the determination of the molecular mass and structural information of the sample molecules. While some techniques can handle solid or liquid samples, the core principle of mass spectrometry relies on the sample being in the vapor state.

Answer: C. MS detector

Explanation: In High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), the Mass Spectrometry (MS) detector is used to generate structural and molecular weight information about the eluted solutes. The MS detector ionizes the sample molecules and separates the ions based on their mass-to-charge ratio, providing detailed information about their molecular structure and mass. This information is crucial for identifying and characterizing unknown compounds or confirming the identity of known compounds.

Answer: A. Clarke and Overman

Explanation: The first systematic presentation of the Neutron Activation Analysis (NAA) method was made by W. F. Clarke and R. P. Overman in their paper published in 1933. NAA is an analytical technique used to determine the elemental composition of a sample by irradiating it with neutrons and measuring the characteristic radiation emitted by the radioactive isotopes formed. Clarke and Overman’s work laid the foundation for the development and application of this powerful analytical technique in various fields, including forensics.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Radioactive elements emit three types of ionizing radiation: alpha particles (helium nuclei), beta particles (high-energy electrons or positrons), and gamma rays (high-energy electromagnetic radiation). The type of radiation emitted depends on the specific radioactive element and its decay process. Many radioactive elements can emit a combination of these radiations during their decay.

Answer: A. DNA duplication

Explanation: The maintenance of the correct number of chromosomes in cell division (mitosis) is dependent on the process of DNA duplication. During the interphase stage of the cell cycle, the DNA in the chromosomes is replicated, creating two identical copies. This duplication ensures that when the cell divides during mitosis, each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes with the same genetic information as the parent cell. Proper DNA duplication is crucial for maintaining genetic integrity and preventing aneuploidy (abnormal chromosome numbers).

Answer: B. Transferrin

Explanation: Transferrin is a blood plasma protein that binds to and transports iron ions in the body. It is not an isoenzyme found specifically in red blood cells. The other options, adenosine deaminase, glutamate pyruvate transaminase, and phosphoglucomutase, are examples of isoenzymes present in red blood cells and can be used in forensic analysis.

Answer: A. WBC

Explanation: White blood cells (WBCs), also known as leukocytes, are an essential component of the human body’s immune system. They play a crucial role in defending the body against infections, foreign substances, and diseases. WBCs include various types of cells, such as lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, and others, each with specific functions in the immune response.

Answer: D. Southern blotting

Explanation: Southern blotting is a technique used for detecting and analyzing specific DNA sequences, but it is not a step involved in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process. The steps involved in PCR are: 1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to separate the strands. 2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to allow primers (short DNA sequences) to bind to the target DNA regions. 3. Extension: DNA polymerase enzyme synthesizes new DNA strands complementary to the template strands.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Detailed notes regarding the amount of blood found or splattered at the scene of occurrence are essential in forensic investigations. The quantity and pattern of blood can provide valuable information about the severity of the assault and the potential length of survival of the victim after the attack. By analyzing the blood evidence, investigators can make informed assessments about the circumstances surrounding the crime, including the victim’s injuries and their approximate time of death.

Answer: C. Methaqualone

Explanation: Mandrax is a sedative-hypnotic drug that was widely abused in the past. Its main active ingredient is methaqualone, a synthetic substance with hypnotic and sedative properties. Methaqualone is a central nervous system depressant that can cause drowsiness, euphoria, and impaired motor skills. It was eventually classified as a controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction.

Answer: C. Metallic

Explanation: The dry ashing method is used for the extraction of metallic poisons from viscera (internal organs or tissues). This method involves the complete oxidation of organic matter through heating at high temperatures, leaving behind the inorganic metallic residues. The metallic residues can then be analyzed to identify and quantify the presence of metallic poisons, such as arsenic, lead, or mercury, which may have been ingested or absorbed by the victim.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: The Marquis, Mecke, and Froehde’s tests are color tests commonly used for the presumptive identification of opiates and related compounds. These tests involve adding specific reagents to the sample and observing the resulting color change, which can indicate the presence of opiates. While these tests are not definitive, they provide initial screening information that can guide further confirmatory analyses.

Answer: A. Ergot fungus

Explanation: Lysergic acid is a compound found in the ergot fungus, which can infect certain grains like rye and wheat. Lysergic acid is the precursor to lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), a potent hallucinogenic drug. The ergot fungus has been known for its psychoactive and toxic effects throughout history, and its alkaloids, including lysergic acid, have been the subject of extensive scientific research.

Answer: A. Tentative identification

Explanation: Screening tests are preliminary analytical methods used for the tentative identification of substances or compounds. They are designed to provide an initial indication of the presence or absence of a particular substance but do not provide definitive or quantitative results. Screening tests are often used as a first step in the analytical process, and positive results are typically followed by more specific and confirmatory tests to establish the identity and concentration of the substance with a higher degree of certainty.

Answer: C. bromoform and bromobenzene

Explanation: In forensic analysis, a density gradient column is used to separate and analyze various components based on their densities. The combination of bromoform and bromobenzene is considered the most suitable for creating a density gradient column. Bromoform has a higher density than bromobenzene, allowing for the formation of a stable density gradient within the column. This gradient can effectively separate and isolate components based on their respective densities, making it a valuable technique in forensic investigations.

Answer: B. Persecution

Explanation: In the famous case of Daniel M’Naghten, who shot and killed Edward Drummond in 1843, M’Naghten was found to be suffering from a delusion of persecution. He believed that he was being persecuted and that killing Drummond, who was the Prime Minister’s secretary, would help end his perceived persecution. This case led to the establishment of the M’Naghten rules, which set a standard for determining legal insanity based on the ability to understand the nature and consequences of one’s actions.

Answer: A. Extraction of poisons

Explanation: The Stass-Otto process, also known as the Stas-Otto process, is a method used for the extraction of poisons from biological materials, such as viscera (internal organs). It involves the use of a series of solvents and chemical treatments to isolate and concentrate any toxic substances present in the sample. This process was developed by Jean Servais Stas and Friedrich Otto and has been widely used in forensic toxicology for the detection and analysis of poisons.

Answer: A. Abrin

Explanation: Abrin is the active principle and toxin found in the seeds of the Abrus precatorius plant, commonly known as the rosary pea or jequirity bean. Abrin is a highly toxic protein that can cause severe poisoning if ingested. It is a potent ribosome-inactivating protein (RIP) that inhibits protein synthesis, leading to cell death. Due to its toxicity, abrin has been a subject of interest in forensic investigations involving poisoning cases.

Answer: D. Unsoiled clothings

Explanation: In cases of suspected poisoning involving living persons, it is important to preserve and collect various biological samples for analysis. These include vomit, excreta (feces and urine), and stomach wash, as they may contain traces of the poison or its metabolites. However, unsoiled clothing, which has not been contaminated with any potential evidence, is typically not preserved or collected as part of the investigation.

Answer: A. Abrasion

Explanation: Abrasions, which are superficial wounds caused by friction against a rough surface, typically heal without leaving a permanent scar. This is because abrasions involve only the outermost layers of the skin, and the body’s natural healing process can repair the damaged tissue without significant scar formation. In contrast, lacerations, chop wounds, and stab wounds, which penetrate deeper into the skin and underlying tissues, often result in scar formation due to the more extensive tissue damage and the body’s healing response.

Answer: A. Contact fire

Explanation: A muzzle pattern, also known as a muzzle stamp or muzzle impression, is a distinctive mark or pattern found on the victim’s skin or clothing when a firearm is discharged at close range or in contact with the target. This pattern is created by the gases and burnt gunpowder residue exiting the muzzle of the firearm at high velocity. Muzzle patterns are typically observed in cases of contact or near-contact firing, where the muzzle is in close proximity to the target surface.

Answer: B. Distance of fire

Explanation: The presence and pattern of burning, blackening, and tattooing on the victim’s skin or clothing are useful indicators for determining the distance at which a firearm was discharged. These marks are caused by the hot gases, partially burned gunpowder particles, and soot that exit the muzzle along with the bullet. The extent and distribution of these markings can provide valuable information about the approximate distance between the muzzle and the target, aiding in reconstructing the events of a shooting incident.

Answer: C. Trombone action

Explanation: The pump action mechanism of a firearm, where the forend (the portion of the stock located in front of the receiver) is manually reciprocated to eject a spent cartridge and load a new one, is also known as the trombone action. This terminology refers to the back-and-forth motion of the forend, which resembles the sliding motion of a trombone’s slide.

Answer: B. Deflection of bullet

Explanation: A ricochet refers to the deflection of a bullet or projectile after striking a surface at an oblique angle. When a bullet hits a hard surface, such as concrete or metal, it can change direction and continue its trajectory at a different angle. This deflection of the bullet is known as a ricochet, and it can have significant implications in ballistic investigations and reconstructing shooting incidents.

Answer: B. Time of fire

Explanation: Fouling, which refers to the residue and deposits left inside the barrel of a firearm after firing, can be useful in determining the approximate time of fire. The analysis of fouling patterns and the degree of accumulation can provide insights into the time that has elapsed since the last shot was fired. This information can be valuable in reconstructing the sequence of events and establishing timelines in forensic investigations involving firearms.

Answer: D. TNT and Ammonium Nitrate

Explanation: Amatol is a explosive mixture composed of TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and Ammonium Nitrate. It was widely used as a high explosive in military applications, particularly during World War I and World War II. The combination of TNT and Ammonium Nitrate provides a powerful explosive force while being relatively inexpensive to produce compared to pure TNT.

Answer: C. 30

Explanation: The 7.62mm AK-47 assault rifle, one of the most widely used and recognizable firearms in the world, has a standard magazine capacity of 30 rounds. The curved box magazine of the AK-47 is designed to hold 30 cartridges of the 7.62x39mm ammunition, allowing for sustained fire without frequent reloading.

Answer: D. Shot gun

Explanation: The ejector is a mechanism found in firearms that forcibly ejects or expels the spent cartridge case or shell from the chamber after firing. In shotguns, however, an ejector is typically not present. Instead, shotguns rely on the manual extraction of the spent shell by the user, either through a pump action or by breaking open the breech.

Answer: D. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation: The correct match between the items in List-I and List-II is as follows:
(a) Ram rod – (iv) Muzzle loader (A ram rod is used to load ammunition in muzzle-loading firearms)
(b) Chamber – (iii) Fired cartridge (The chamber is where the cartridge is loaded and fired)
(c) Rifling mark – (i) Fired Bullet (Rifling marks are imparted on the bullet by the rifling in the barrel)
(d) Choking of barrel – (ii) Shot gun (Choking refers to the constriction at the muzzle end of a shotgun barrel)

Answer: B. (A) is wrong (R) is correct.

Explanation: The assertion that the penetration power of a shotgun is more than that of a service rifle is incorrect. Service rifles, such as the M16 or AK-47, fire high-velocity rifle cartridges that have significantly greater penetration power than shotgun ammunition. The reason provided is correct: rifles produce more energy inside the barrel compared to shotguns, resulting in higher muzzle velocities and greater penetration capabilities for rifle bullets.

Answer: B. 0.35

Explanation: LG (Lead and Gunpowder) pellets, which are commonly used in shotgun ammunition, have a diameter of 0.35 inches or approximately 8.9 millimeters. These lead pellets, along with gunpowder, are packed into shotgun shells to create a widespread pattern of projectiles upon firing.

Answer: D. Nitrite

Explanation: The Walker Test, also known as the Paraffin Test, is a forensic technique used to detect the presence of nitrites, which are components of gunshot residue (GSR). When a firearm is discharged, nitrites are produced as byproducts of the combustion process and can be deposited on the hands or clothing of the shooter. The Walker Test involves applying a chemical reagent to a paraffin cast or sample taken from a suspect’s hands, and a color change indicates the presence of nitrites, suggesting potential involvement in a shooting incident.

Answer: D. Wad

Explanation: A wad is not a component of a rifle cartridge. Wads are typically used in shotgun ammunition to separate the powder charge from the shot or slug and provide a gas seal. In a rifle cartridge, the main components are the cartridge case, primer, gunpowder, and projectile (bullet). The wad is not present in rifle ammunition as it is designed for different types of projectiles fired at higher velocities.

Answer: B. Doderlain’s bacilli

Explanation: Vaginal secretions contain a variety of components, including Doderlein’s bacilli, also known as Lactobacillus species. These bacilli are part of the normal vaginal flora and play a crucial role in maintaining a healthy vaginal environment by producing lactic acid, which helps maintain an acidic pH. The presence of Doderlein’s bacilli in vaginal secretions is an important indicator of a healthy vaginal ecosystem.

Answer: B. P30

Explanation: Counter Immuno Electro Phoresis (CIEP) is a technique used for the detection of P30, a protein found in seminal fluid. P30 is a reliable biomarker for the identification of semen in forensic investigations, particularly in cases involving sexual assault or other crimes involving bodily fluids.

Answer: C. Bestiality

Explanation: Fecal matter as evidence is commonly encountered in cases involving bestiality, which is a sexual act between a human and an animal. In such cases, the presence of fecal matter can provide crucial evidence linking the suspect to the crime. It can also help in identifying the specific animal involved through DNA analysis or other forensic techniques.

Answer: C. Screwdriver

Explanation: When creating standard tool marks for comparison purposes, the angle of tool application is particularly important for screwdrivers. The angle at which a screwdriver is used can leave distinctive markings on the surface, which can be compared to the tool marks found at a crime scene. This helps in identifying the specific tool used and potentially linking it to a suspect or a crime.

Answer: D. Linen

Explanation: Nodes are characteristic features found in linen fibers. Linen is a natural fiber derived from the stem of the flax plant. Under a microscope, linen fibers exhibit nodes, which are small, irregular thickenings or swellings along the length of the fiber. These nodes are unique to linen and can be used to distinguish it from other natural or synthetic fibers, making it an important characteristic in fiber analysis in forensic investigations.

Answer: B. Glass fracture

Explanation: The 4-R rule is connected with glass fracture analysis in forensic investigations. The 4-R rule stands for Radial, Reverse, Ragged, and Rectangular fractures. These four types of fractures are commonly observed in glass and can provide valuable information about the direction of force, the sequence of fractures, and other details related to the breaking of glass. Understanding the 4-R rule is crucial in reconstructing events and determining the cause of glass fractures in criminal investigations.

Answer: B. Narrower

Explanation: When a projectile, such as a bullet, enters glass, it creates a crater-shaped hole that is Narrower on the side where the projectile entered.

Answer: B. T. L. C

Explanation: Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) is the most suitable technique for the individualization of liquid inks. TLC separates and identifies the different components present in an ink sample based on their respective affinities for a stationary phase (typically a solid adsorbent) and a mobile phase (a solvent mixture). The resulting chromatogram can reveal the unique composition of an ink, allowing for the differentiation and individualization of inks from different sources or manufacturers.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: In forensic gait analysis, several factors are considered as part of an individual’s gait pattern. Step length refers to the distance between consecutive footprints of the same foot. Foot angle is the orientation or angle at which the foot strikes the ground. The walking line is the path or trajectory taken by an individual while walking. All of these factors – step length, foot angle, and walking line – contribute to an individual’s unique gait pattern and can be analyzed in forensic investigations involving surveillance footage or other evidence related to gait pattern.

Answer: A. Manganese and iron

Explanation: The black coloration in soil is generally attributed to the presence of manganese and iron minerals. These elements, when present in their oxidized forms, can impart a dark black or blackish-brown color to the soil. Manganese oxides and iron oxides are the primary contributors to this color. Soil analysis, including the identification of these mineral components, can provide valuable information in forensic investigations involving soil evidence.

Answer: C. Femur and Ulna

Explanation: The femur (thigh bone) and ulna (one of the bones in the forearm) are commonly used in forensic anthropology for estimating an individual’s stature or height. These long bones have well-established mathematical relationships between their lengths and an individual’s overall height. By measuring the lengths of the femur and ulna and applying specific formulas, forensic anthropologists can provide an estimate of the individual’s stature, which can be valuable in identification efforts.

Answer: C. Prominent glabella

Explanation: A prominent glabella, which is the protruding area between the eyebrows and above the nose, is typically not a feature associated with a female skull. Male skulls tend to exhibit a more prominent glabella, while female skulls generally have a smoother and less pronounced glabella region. Other features like prominent parietal eminences (bony protrusions on the sides of the skull), prominent frontal eminences, and roundish shaped orbits (eye sockets) are commonly seen in female skulls.

Answer: C. 6 – 12 yrs

Explanation: The period of mixed dentition refers to the phase when both primary (deciduous) teeth and permanent (adult) teeth are present in the mouth. This transitional period typically occurs between the ages of 6 and 12 years. During this time, the primary teeth begin to shed, and the permanent teeth erupt to replace them gradually. Understanding the timeline of mixed dentition is crucial in forensic odontology for age estimation and identification purposes.

Answer: D. 95%

Explanation: The pelvis is one of the most reliable skeletal indicators for determining sex in forensic anthropology. The shape and features of the pelvis exhibit significant differences between males and females due to the anatomical adaptations for childbirth in females. When analyzed by experienced forensic anthropologists, the accuracy of sex determination from the pelvis can reach up to 95% or higher, making it an invaluable tool in the identification process.

Answer: D. Lamdoid

Explanation: The lambdoid suture, located at the back of the skull, is the last cranial suture to fuse or close. Cranial sutures are fibrous joints that connect the bones of the skull. The lambdoid suture, which joins the occipital bone and the two parietal bones, typically fuses in late adulthood, usually after the age of 60. This delayed closure of the lambdoid suture is useful in forensic age estimation methods based on the analysis of cranial suture closure patterns.

Answer: C. 8

Explanation: In a child aged 16 years, the total number of carpal bones in each wrist is typically 8. The carpus, or the wrist region, consists of 8 small bones arranged in two rows: the proximal row (scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform) and the distal row (trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate). These carpal bones are fully ossified or formed by the age of 16, allowing for their accurate identification and enumeration in forensic examinations.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are true.

Explanation: A ‘plain’ impression made by ink is generally considered unsatisfactory for fingerprint analysis because it may not capture all the necessary details and characteristics of the fingerprint ridges. In a plain impression, a larger number of points or junctions (where the ridges intersect or bifurcate) may not appear clearly, making it difficult to establish a reliable match or identification. Forensic fingerprint analysis typically requires high-quality impressions that capture the minutiae (ridge characteristics) in sufficient detail for comparison and identification purposes.

Answer: C. rows of sweat pores

Explanation: The ridges on our fingerprints are formed by rows of sweat pores or pores that exude sweat from the skin. These rows of sweat pores create the raised friction ridges that make up the unique patterns on our fingertips. The presence of sweat on these ridges allows for the transfer of fingerprint impressions onto surfaces, which can be analyzed for identification purposes in forensic investigations.

Answer: C. 3 1 4 2

Explanation:
I. Latent fingerprints (3) – Invisible fingerprints left by the natural oils and sweat on the skin.
II. Patent prints (1) – Fingerprints deposited on surfaces like paint or blood, which are readily visible.
III. Plastic prints (4) – Fingerprints formed in soft materials like putty, where the ridges leave a three-dimensional impression.
IV. Tap prints (2) – Plain fingerprints left by intentionally applying pressure with the fingertips, usually for recording purposes.

Answer: C. Whorls

Explanation: In the primary classification of fingerprints, numerical values are assigned to whorl patterns. Whorls are one of the three main pattern types, along with loops and arches. Whorls are characterized by ridges that form circular or spiral patterns and are given specific numerical values based on their sub-types (e.g., plain whorl, double loop whorl, accidental whorl) for classification purposes. This numerical coding system aids in the organization and efficient retrieval of fingerprint records.

Answer: A. Mechanical erasure

Explanation: The erasure of writing using a rubber eraser is referred to as mechanical erasure. Mechanical erasure involves the physical removal of ink or graphite from the writing surface by the abrasive action of the rubber material. This type of erasure is distinct from chemical erasure, which involves the use of chemical agents to remove or alter the writing, and from other methods like hand erasure or soft erasure.

Answer: B. Corresponding finger of the other hand

Explanation: In cases where an individual has lost a finger due to amputation, the corresponding finger of the other hand is considered for fingerprint classification purposes. Since fingerprint patterns are largely determined by genetics, the fingerprint of the corresponding finger on the other hand is expected to share similar characteristics and can be used as a substitute for the amputated finger in the classification process.

Answer: C. Joule burn

Explanation: The injury sustained by the skin due to an alternating current is called a Joule burn. This type of burn is caused by the heat generated by the electrical current passing through the body’s tissues, leading to localized burning and tissue damage. The term “Joule burn” refers to the Joule effect, which describes the heat produced by an electric current flowing through a resistive material, in this case, the body’s tissues. Joule burns can occur when an individual comes into contact with an alternating current source and can be identified by their characteristic burn patterns and associated electrical injuries.

Answer: C. 304 B IPC

Explanation: Dowry deaths in India are booked under Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This section specifically deals with “dowry death,” which is defined as the death of a woman caused by burns, bodily injury, or other circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and it is shown that she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for dowry. Section 304B IPC provides for punishment in cases of dowry-related deaths, reflecting the gravity of this crime in Indian society.

Answer: A. Cherry red

Explanation: In cases of death due to burns, the color of the blood is often described as cherry red. This distinct color is a result of the formation of carboxyhemoglobin, which occurs when carbon monoxide from the burning process binds to the hemoglobin in the blood. The cherry red color of the blood is a characteristic finding in burn victims and can be useful in forensic investigations to determine the cause and circumstances surrounding the death.

Answer: B. Suicidal wounds

Explanation: Multiple parallel superficial cuts that criss-cross each other are often suggestive of suicidal wounds. This pattern of injuries is commonly seen in cases of self-harm or attempted suicide, where the individual inflicts multiple shallow cuts on their body, typically on the forearms or wrists. This characteristic pattern of multiple criss-crossing cuts can help forensic experts differentiate between suicidal injuries and wounds resulting from other causes, such as accidental injuries or homicidal attacks.

Answer: C. Length

Explanation: The greatest dimension of an incised wound, which is typically caused by a sharp-edged instrument like a knife or razor, is its length. Incised wounds are characterized by their clean-cut appearance, and their length is usually greater than their breadth or depth. This characteristic is useful in forensic examinations, as the length of an incised wound can provide insight into the type of weapon used and the force applied during the infliction of the injury.

Answer: C. Ectopic bruise

Explanation: The appearance of a bruise at a site away from the location of the impact is known as an ectopic bruise. Ectopic bruises occur when the force of the impact is transmitted through the body, causing bleeding and bruising at a distant site. This phenomenon can be seen in cases of blunt force trauma, where the impact site may not show significant bruising, but bruises appear in other areas due to the internal bleeding and dissipation of force. Identifying ectopic bruises is important in forensic investigations, as it can provide valuable information about the mechanism and severity of the injury.

Answer: D. Contusions

Explanation: Contusions, also known as bruises, are injuries caused by blunt force trauma that result in the rupture of blood vessels beneath the skin’s surface. Unlike other types of injuries like grazed abrasions, chop wounds, or lacerated wounds, contusions typically do not involve the presence of foreign bodies. Contusions are characterized by discoloration of the skin due to the accumulation of blood and do not typically contain external foreign materials.

Answer: D. color of a person

Explanation: The formation of a bruise is influenced by factors such as the force used, the sex of the person, and the age of the person. However, the color of a person’s skin does not directly influence the formation of a bruise. Bruises occur due to the rupture of blood vessels beneath the skin, and the discoloration that results is caused by the accumulation of blood and its subsequent breakdown products. While the color of a person’s skin may affect the visible appearance of a bruise, it does not play a role in the underlying mechanism of bruise formation itself.