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2012 June NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper, Part -1

Question 1: Bertillonage is synonymous term to

  • A. Anthropometry
  • B. Dactyloscopy
  • C. Portrait Parle
  • D. Serology
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Anthropometry

Explanation: Bertillonage is a system of anthropometric measurement and classification developed by French criminologist Alphonse Bertillon. It is synonymous with the term “anthropometry,” which refers to the scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body. This method was used for identifying individuals before the advent of fingerprinting.

Question 2: Sherlock Holmes was a character in the novel of

  • A. Arthur Conan Doyle
  • B. Agatha Christie
  • C. Perry Mason
  • D. Victor Hugo
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Arthur Conan Doyle

Explanation: Sherlock Holmes is the famous fictional detective created by Scottish author and physician Sir Arthur Conan Doyle. The Sherlock Holmes stories, published between 1887 and 1927, are considered milestones in the field of crime fiction and have had a lasting influence on the genre.

Question 3: Latent Finger print on electric bulb should be preserved by putting in

  • A. Cardboard box
  • B. Fixed in a bulb holder in wooden box
  • C. In a cellophane bag
  • D. Paper bag
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Fixed in a bulb holder in wooden box

Explanation: When preserving latent fingerprints on an electric bulb, it is recommended to fix the bulb in a bulb holder within a wooden box. This method ensures the preservation of the delicate fingerprint impressions while providing adequate protection during transportation and storage. Placing the bulb in a cellophane bag may not provide sufficient protection and could potentially damage or compromise the fingerprint evidence.

Question 4: A ridge that forks and forms a complete circle and then becomes a single ridge again is called as

  • A. Island
  • B. Bifurcation
  • C. Fork
  • D. Anastomosis
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Anastomosis

Explanation: In fingerprint analysis, a ridge that forks and forms a complete circle before returning to a single ridge is known as an “anastomosis.” This pattern is a distinctive characteristic used in fingerprint identification and classification.

Question 5: In India the new Central Forensic Science laboratory is not started at

  • A. Ahmedabad
  • B. Bhopal
  • C. Guwahati
  • D. Pune
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Ahmedabad

Explanation: The Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL) is a premier forensic science institution in India, with several regional branches across the country. According to the information provided in the question, a new CFSL has not been established in Ahmedabad, while branches have been set up in cities like Bhopal, Guwahati, and Pune.

Question 6: The concept of poroscopy was given by

  • A. Karl Landsteiner
  • B. Burrard
  • C. Edmond Locard
  • D. Hans Gross
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Edmond Locard

Explanation: The concept of poroscopy, the study and analysis of pores present in fingerprints, was introduced by Edmond Locard, a pioneering French criminologist. Poroscopy involves the examination of the size, shape, and distribution of sweat pores within fingerprint impressions, which can aid in individual identification.

Question 7: The layer of cells between the epidermis and dermis is called as

  • A. minutiae
  • B. dermal papillae
  • C. sweat pores
  • D. friction ridges
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. dermal papillae

Explanation: The layer of cells between the epidermis (outer layer of skin) and the dermis (inner layer of skin) is called the dermal papillae. The dermal papillae are projections of the dermis that extend into the epidermis and play a crucial role in the formation of fingerprint ridges. They are responsible for the unique patterns and details found in fingerprints.

Question 8: Salylation is used in

  • A. Gas liquid chromatography
  • B. Mass spectrometer
  • C. Atomic absorption spectrometer
  • D. Atomic emission spectrometer
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Gas liquid chromatography

Explanation: Salylation is a chemical derivatization technique used in gas-liquid chromatography (GLC) analysis. It involves reacting a compound with a salyl chloride reagent to form a derivative that is more volatile and thermally stable. This process improves the separation and detection of the compound during GLC analysis, particularly for polar or non-volatile substances.

Question 9: The image seen through a compound microscope is

  • A. Virtual
  • B. Real
  • C. False
  • D. Imaginary
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Virtual

Explanation: In a compound microscope, the image observed by the viewer is a virtual image. A virtual image is formed when light rays do not actually converge at the location of the image but appear to diverge from a specific point when extended backward. The eyepiece of a compound microscope creates a magnified virtual image of the specimen, allowing the viewer to see it clearly.

Question 10: NMR is a tool to investigate

  • A. Nuclear structure
  • B. Electron structure
  • C. Scattering effect of light
  • D. Reflecting effect of light
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Nuclear structure

Explanation: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) is a powerful analytical technique used to investigate the nuclear structure of atoms and molecules. It relies on the interaction between the magnetic moments of atomic nuclei and an applied magnetic field. NMR spectroscopy provides valuable information about the chemical environment, molecular structure, and dynamics of the sample being studied.

Question 11: MCT detector is used in

  • A. FTIR spectrometery
  • B. AAS
  • C. GC-MS
  • D. LC-MS
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. FTIR spectrometery

Explanation: MCT (Mercury Cadmium Telluride) detectors are commonly used in Fourier Transform Infrared (FTIR) spectrometers. These detectors are highly sensitive to infrared radiation and are used to measure the absorption or transmission of infrared light by the sample. FTIR spectroscopy is a valuable technique for identifying and analyzing organic and inorganic compounds based on their unique infrared absorption patterns.

Question 12: In SEM, the incident beam is focussed by means of

  • A. Lens
  • B. Mirrors
  • C. Electromagnets
  • D. Slits
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Electromagnets

Explanation: In a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM), the incident electron beam is focused using electromagnets. The electron beam is generated and accelerated by an electron gun, and then it passes through a series of electromagnetic lenses and apertures to create a focused beam. The electromagnets, by manipulating the magnetic fields, allow for precise control and focusing of the electron beam onto the sample surface.

Question 13: Following instrument can view a particle under a microscope while at the same time a beam of light is directed at the particle in order to obtain its absorption spectrum

  • A. Atomic force microscope
  • B. XRF spectrograph
  • C. Micro spectrophotometer
  • D. XRD spectrograph
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Micro spectrophotometer

Explanation: A micro spectrophotometer is an instrument that combines microscopy and spectrophotometry capabilities. It allows the user to view a particle or sample under a microscope while simultaneously directing a beam of light onto the particle to obtain its absorption spectrum. This instrument is particularly useful in fields like material science, biology, and forensics, where it is necessary to analyze the optical properties and chemical composition of microscopic samples.

Question 14: Ninhydrin reacts with amino acids present in fingerprints to form a coloured compound is called as

  • A. Dimethyl formamide
  • B. Pervanadyl
  • C. Vanadyl
  • D. Ruhemann’s purple
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Ruhemann’s purple

Explanation: Ninhydrin is a chemical reagent widely used in forensic science for the detection and visualization of latent fingerprints. When ninhydrin reacts with the amino acids present in the sweat residue of fingerprints, it forms a deep purple compound known as Ruhemann’s purple. This colored compound makes the previously invisible fingerprint patterns visible and allows for their examination and analysis.

Question 15: O-tolidine is 3, 3’dimethyl derivative of

  • A. Phenopthaline
  • B. Benzidine
  • C. Sodium acetate
  • D. Sodium chloride
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Benzidine

Explanation: O-tolidine, also known as 3,3′-dimethylbenzidine, is a derivative of benzidine. Benzidine is an organic compound with the molecular formula C12H12N2, and O-tolidine is formed by substituting two methyl groups (-CH3) at the 3 and 3′ positions of the benzidine molecule. O-tolidine is used as a chemical indicator and in various analytical applications.

Question 16: Serum protein polymorphism are demonstrated by

  • A. HPLC
  • B. Centrifugation
  • C. GC-MS
  • D. Electrophoresis
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Electrophoresis

Explanation: Serum protein polymorphism, which refers to the variation in the types and amounts of proteins present in the serum (the liquid component of blood), is typically demonstrated using electrophoresis techniques. Electrophoresis separates and analyzes proteins based on their charge and molecular weight, allowing for the identification and quantification of different protein fractions in the serum sample.

Question 17: The following technique is used to identify the enzymes in blood samples:

  • A. Southern blotting
  • B. Electrophoresis
  • C. TLC
  • D. Northern blotting
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Electrophoresis

Explanation: Electrophoresis is a widely used technique for identifying and analyzing enzymes present in blood samples. Different enzymes have unique charges and molecular weights, which allow them to separate and form distinct bands when subjected to an electric field during electrophoresis. By comparing the banding patterns with known standards, specific enzymes can be identified and their levels can be quantified.

Question 18: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(I) Central loop (1) Contains no pocket
(II) Arches (2) Contains two loops opening on the same side
(III) Twinned loop (3) Contains one loop core and two delta
(IV) Lateral pocket loop (4) Contains two pocket loops opening at opposite sides

Codes: (I) (II) (III) (IV)

  • A. 3 1 2 4
  • B. 2 3 1 4
  • C. 4 3 2 1
  • D. 3 1 4 2
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. 3 1 4 2

Explanation: The correct matching of the fingerprint pattern types and their descriptions is as follows:

(I) Central loop (3) Contains one loop core and two delta

(II) Arches (1) Contains no pocket

(III) Twinned loop (4) Contains two pocket loops opening at opposite sides

(IV) Lateral pocket loop (2) Contains two loops opening on the same side

This matching is based on the standard terminology and classifications used in fingerprint analysis.

Question 19: Assertion (A) : In disputed paternity and maternity cases, it is not possible to determine the blood group of the child.

Reason (R) : The blood groups are not inherited as per Mendelian law of inheritance.

Codes:

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • B. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • D. (R) is incorrect and (A) is correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Explanation: In disputed paternity and maternity cases, it is possible to determine the blood group of the child through genetic testing. Blood groups are inherited according to Mendelian laws of inheritance, following specific patterns. By analyzing the blood groups of the child and the alleged parents, investigators can establish or exclude biological relationships. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason provided in the question are incorrect.

Question 20: Application of ABO grouping in disputed paternity was first used by

  • A. Landsteiner
  • B. Hirschfeld
  • C. Bernstein
  • D. Ottenberg
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Ottenberg

Explanation: The application of ABO blood group analysis in disputed paternity cases was first introduced by Reuben Ottenberg in 1923. Ottenberg recognized the potential of using ABO blood group inheritance patterns to establish or exclude paternity. This pioneering work laid the foundation for the forensic use of blood group typing in paternity testing and other kinship investigations.

Question 21: Genes which exists as alternate expressions at a particular locus is known as

  • A. Loci
  • B. Antigen
  • C. Allele
  • D. Phenotype
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Allele

Explanation: Alleles are alternative forms of a gene that exist at a particular locus (genetic location) on a chromosome. Different alleles can produce variations in observable traits or characteristics, known as phenotypes. Individuals can have two copies of the same allele (homozygous) or different alleles (heterozygous) for a particular gene. The study of alleles and their inheritance patterns is crucial in genetics and forensic DNA analysis.

Question 22: Kozelaka and Hine method is used for the quantitative estimation of

  • A. Ethyl Alcohol
  • B. Opium
  • C. Cocaine
  • D. Cannabis
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Ethyl Alcohol

Explanation: The Kozelka and Hine method is a widely used technique for the quantitative estimation of ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in biological samples, such as blood or urine. This method involves oxidizing ethanol to acetic acid and then titrating the acetic acid with a standardized sodium hydroxide solution. The amount of ethyl alcohol present in the sample can be calculated based on the amount of sodium hydroxide required for neutralization.

Question 23: The following colour tests is applied for the detection of halogenated hydrocarbons?

  • A. Fujiwara Test
  • B. Koppanyi-Zwikker Test
  • C. Sodium nitroprusside
  • D. Cobalt thiocyanate
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Fujiwara Test

Explanation: The Fujiwara test, also known as the pyridine-pyridine reagent test, is a color test used for the detection of halogenated hydrocarbons, such as chlorinated and brominated compounds. It involves treating the sample with pyridine and an alkali, which produces a characteristic color change if halogenated hydrocarbons are present. This test is commonly used in forensic drug analysis and environmental testing.

Question 24: The following is a poisonous mushroom species:

  • A. Amanita phalloides
  • B. Morchella esculenta
  • C. Boletus edulis
  • D. Cantharellus cibarius
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Amanita phalloides

Explanation: Amanita phalloides, commonly known as the death cap mushroom, is one of the most poisonous mushroom species in the world. Ingesting this mushroom can lead to severe liver failure and potentially fatal consequences. The other options provided (Morchella esculenta, Boletus edulis, and Cantharellus cibarius) are edible mushroom species that are generally considered safe for consumption.

Question 25: Scott’s test is applied for the detection of

  • A. Amphetamines
  • B. Barbiturates
  • C. Opiates
  • D. Cocaine
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Cocaine

Explanation: The Scott’s test, also known as the modified Dille-Koppanyi test, is a color test used specifically for the detection of cocaine and its metabolites. It involves treating the sample with cobalt thiocyanate and chloroform, which produces a characteristic blue color in the presence of cocaine. This test is widely employed in forensic drug analysis and toxicology laboratories.

Question 26: The active ingredients of cannabis are collectively known as

  • A. Cannabinoids
  • B. Annabinoids
  • C. Cannazoids
  • D. Cannatedois
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Cannabinoids

Explanation: The active ingredients found in cannabis plants, responsible for their psychoactive and physiological effects, are collectively known as cannabinoids. The most well-known cannabinoids are tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and cannabidiol (CBD). These compounds interact with the endocannabinoid system in the human body, producing various effects. The term “cannabinoids” is the accepted scientific term for these active components found in cannabis.

Question 27: For preparing Heroin which of the following is used as acetylating reagent?

  • A. Acetic anhydride
  • B. Sodium hydroxide
  • C. Ammonium hydroxide
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Acetic anhydride

Explanation: Acetic anhydride is the acetylating reagent used in the synthesis of heroin from morphine. The process involves reacting morphine with acetic anhydride, which introduces acetyl groups to form diacetylmorphine, commonly known as heroin. Acetic anhydride is a highly reactive compound that facilitates the acetylation reaction, converting morphine into the more potent and lipophilic heroin compound.

Question 28: Blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is measured in

  • A. Weight/volume percent
  • B. Volume/volume percent
  • C. Weight/weight percent
  • D. None of above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Weight/volume percent

Explanation: Blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is typically measured in weight/volume percent (w/v %). This unit represents the weight of alcohol (in grams) present in a given volume of blood (in milliliters). For example, a BAC of 0.08% means that there are 0.08 grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood. The weight/volume percentage is the standard unit used in forensic toxicology and legal contexts for measuring and reporting blood alcohol levels.

Question 29: The detection of colostrum is essential in the following situation:

  • A. Concealment of birth
  • B. Rape
  • C. Paternity dispute
  • D. Immigration
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Concealment of birth

Explanation: The detection of colostrum, the first milk produced by the breasts after childbirth, is essential in cases involving the concealment of birth. Colostrum analysis can provide evidence that a woman has recently given birth, which is crucial in investigating cases where a newborn baby has been abandoned or the birth has been concealed. The presence of colostrum can help establish the fact of childbirth and support legal proceedings related to concealment of birth cases.

Question 30: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(a) P30 (i) Blood
(b) Creatine (ii) Saliva
(c) Ptyaline (iii) Urine
(d) PGM (iv) Semen

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

  • A. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
  • B. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
  • C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
  • D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Explanation: The correct matching of the substances and their corresponding sources is as follows:

(a) P30 (iv) Semen

(b) Creatine (iii) Urine

(c) Ptyaline (ii) Saliva

(d) PGM (i) Blood

P30 is a protein found in semen, creatine is a waste product present in urine, ptyaline (alpha-amylase) is an enzyme found in saliva, and PGM (phosphoglucomutase) is an enzyme marker present in blood.

Question 31: Radial Diffusion Test is used for the detection of

  • A. Colostrum
  • B. Heptoglobulins
  • C. Hemoglobin
  • D. Amylase
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Amylase

Explanation: The Radial Diffusion Test is a method used for the detection and quantification of amylase, an enzyme present in various bodily fluids, including saliva, blood, and semen. In this test, a sample is placed in a gel containing a substrate for amylase. As the amylase diffuses radially through the gel, it hydrolyzes the substrate, forming a clear zone around the sample well. The size of this clear zone is proportional to the amylase concentration in the sample, allowing for quantitative analysis.

Question 32: Human hair when examined under microscope will reveal

  • A. Thick cortex and thin medulla
  • B. Thin cortex and thick medulla
  • C. Cortex and medulla with equal thickness
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Thick cortex and thin medulla

Explanation: When human hair is examined under a microscope, it typically reveals a thick cortex and a thin medulla. The cortex is the main structural component of the hair shaft, made up of tightly packed elongated cells that provide strength and elasticity. The medulla, on the other hand, is a narrow central core composed of loosely arranged cells or air spaces. The relative thickness of the cortex and thinness of the medulla is a characteristic feature of human hair that aids in its identification and differentiation from other hair types.

Question 33: In starch-iodine test, the starch turns in the following colour on addition of iodine:

  • A. Purple
  • B. Blue
  • C. Green
  • D. Pink
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Blue

Explanation: In the starch-iodine test, the addition of iodine solution to a starch sample produces a distinctive blue-black color. This color change occurs due to the formation of a starch-iodine complex, where the iodine molecules are trapped within the coiled structure of the starch molecules. The intensity of the blue color is proportional to the amount of starch present in the sample. This test is widely used in various fields, including forensics, food analysis, and biology, to detect the presence and estimate the concentration of starch.

Question 34: Accumulation of epithelial skin tags at the end of a wound is seen in which of the following?

  • A. Abrasion
  • B. Incised
  • C. Split laceration
  • D. Chop wound
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Abrasion

Explanation: The accumulation of epithelial skin tags, also known as abrasion collars or abrasion risers, is a characteristic feature observed in abrasion wounds. Abrasions are injuries caused by the forcible removal of the superficial layers of skin due to rough contact with a surface. At the end of an abrasion, the shearing forces can cause the detached skin to roll up or accumulate, forming these epithelial skin tags or abrasion collars. This phenomenon is not typically seen in incised wounds, split lacerations, or chop wounds, which have different injury mechanisms.

Question 35: Match the following constituents of paints:

List – I List – II
(I) Vehicle 1. Used in a polymer to increase its flexibility
(II) Lacquer 2. Pigment distribution
(III) Varnish 3. Fast-drying coatings
(IV) Plasticizer 4. Solution of drying oils and resins in organic solvents

Codes:

  • A. 3 1 4 2
  • B. 2 1 4 3
  • C. 4 3 2 1
  • D. 2 3 4 1
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. 2 3 4 1

Explanation: The correct matching of the paint constituents and their descriptions is as follows:

(I) Vehicle (2) Pigment distribution

(II) Lacquer (3) Fast-drying coatings

(III) Varnish (4) Solution of drying oils and resins in organic solvents

(IV) Plasticizer (1) Used in a polymer to increase its flexibility

The vehicle is responsible for dispersing and binding the pigments in a paint formulation. Lacquers are fast-drying coatings used for decorative and protective purposes. Varnishes are solutions of resins and drying oils in organic solvents, providing a protective and glossy finish. Plasticizers are added to polymers to increase their flexibility and workability.

Question 36: Following is not improvised explosive:

  • A. Pipe bomb
  • B. Letter bomb
  • C. Hand Grenade
  • D. Acid bulb
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Hand Grenade

Explanation: A hand grenade is a commercially manufactured explosive device used by military and law enforcement personnel. It is not considered an improvised explosive device (IED), which refers to homemade explosives constructed from readily available materials. Pipe bombs, letter bombs, and acid bulbs are examples of IEDs, as they are assembled from non-conventional components and materials. Hand grenades, on the other hand, are standardized and mass-produced explosives designed for specific purposes.

Question 37: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(a) Antimony Sulphate (i) Nitroglycerine
(b) Cordite (ii) Nitrocellulose powder
(c) Gun cotton (iii) Double base smokeless powder
(d) Dynamite (iv) Primer

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

  • A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
  • B. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
  • C. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
  • D. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Explanation: The correct matching of the substances and their corresponding descriptions is as follows:

(a) Antimony Sulphate (iv) Primer (used in firearms for igniting propellant)

(b) Cordite (iii) Double base smokeless powder (propellant used in firearms)

(c) Gun cotton (ii) Nitrocellulose powder (explosive material)

(d) Dynamite (i) Nitroglycerine (explosive compound)

Antimony Sulphate is a component of primers used in firearms to initiate the ignition of propellants. Cordite is a double-base smokeless powder used as a propellant.

Question 38: Assertion (A) : The shortening of barrel increases dispersion of pellets in shot gun.

Reason (R) : It produces less pressure inside the barrel.

Codes:

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
  • B. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • C. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
  • D. (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: In the case of shotguns, shortening the barrel length does increase the dispersion of pellets. When the barrel is shorter, the pellets have less time to stabilize and align before exiting the muzzle, resulting in increased dispersion or spread. Additionally, a shorter barrel produces less pressure inside the barrel, as there is less distance for the propellant gases to build up pressure. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason given in the question are correct.

Question 39: Zip gun is a

  • A. 12 bore gun
  • B. Automatic gun
  • C. Improvised firearm
  • D. AK-47
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Improvised firearm

Explanation: A zip gun is an improvised or homemade firearm, typically constructed from readily available materials such as metal pipes, rubber bands, and other common household items. Zip guns are considered crude and often unreliable firearms, but they can still pose a significant threat. They are not commercially manufactured firearms like 12 bore guns, automatic guns, or the AK-47 rifle.

Question 40: Ram rod is a part of

  • A. 12 bore gun
  • B. 8 bore gun
  • C. Muzzle loaders
  • D. AK-47
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Muzzle loaders

Explanation: A ram rod is a tool used in muzzle-loading firearms to load and compress the propellant charge and projectile into the barrel from the muzzle end. It is an essential component of muzzle-loading weapons, which were common before the advent of modern breech-loading firearms. Ram rods are not typically associated with modern firearms like 12 bore guns, 8 bore guns, or the AK-47 rifle, which use different loading mechanisms.

Question 41: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(I) Tempered glass 1. Metallic oxides
(II) Borosilicate glass 2. Molten rock
(III) Coloured glass 3. Dice formation
(IV) Rock wool 4. Constituents B2O3

Codes: (I) (II) (III) (IV)

  • A. 4 1 2 3
  • B. 2 1 4 3
  • C. 3 4 1 2
  • D. 1 3 2 4
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. 3 4 1 2

Explanation: The correct matching of the glass types and their corresponding descriptions is as follows:

(I) Tempered glass (3) Dice formation (a treatment process to increase strength)

(II) Borosilicate glass (4) Constituents B2O3 (contains boron trioxide)

(III) Coloured glass (1) Metallic oxides (added for coloring)

(IV) Rock wool (2) Molten rock (the raw material for rock wool production)

Tempered glass undergoes a controlled thermal process to increase its strength and shatter resistance. Borosilicate glass contains boron trioxide, which provides heat resistance. Coloured glass gets its tint from the addition of metallic oxides. Rock wool is an insulating material made from molten rock.

Question 42: The following is a regenerated fiber:

  • A. Cotton
  • B. Rayon
  • C. Nylon
  • D. Silk
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Rayon

Explanation: Rayon is a regenerated fiber, which means it is produced from natural materials that have been chemically processed and reformed into fibers. Rayon is typically made from purified cellulose derived from wood pulp or other plant sources. The cellulose is dissolved and then extruded through spinnerets to form the regenerated rayon fibers. Cotton, nylon, and silk are natural (cotton and silk) or synthetic (nylon) fibers, but they are not regenerated fibers.

Question 43: Which of the following statements is not true in case of an accident report?

  • A. The diagram of the position of the vehicles as found after the accident should be present.
  • B. Diagram of the tyre marks, impact marks and other items found at the scene should be present.
  • C. The report may contain statements made by the parties or witnesses at a later stage.
  • D. Photographs of the scene.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. The report may contain statements made by the parties or witnesses at a later stage.

Explanation: In an accident report, the statements or testimonies included should be those made by the parties or witnesses at the scene of the accident, immediately after the incident occurred. Statements or accounts provided at a later stage may be influenced by external factors or lack of recall, and are generally not considered reliable evidence for inclusion in the initial accident report.

Question 44: The following is the most suitable casting material for preserving foot wear impressions:

  • A. Plaster of Paris
  • B. Plasticine
  • C. Dental Stone
  • D. Paraffin wax
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Dental Stone

Explanation: Dental stone is considered the most suitable casting material for preserving footwear impressions found at crime scenes or other locations of interest. Dental stone is a gypsum-based material that sets quickly and provides a rigid, dimensionally stable cast capable of capturing fine details. It is commonly used in forensic investigations to create accurate casts of footwear impressions, tire tracks, or other impression evidence for subsequent analysis and comparison.

Question 45: The annealing temperature for ordinary glass is

  • A. 200°C to 350°C
  • B. 100°C to 250°C
  • C. 500°C to 650°C
  • D. 800°C to 950°C
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. 500°C to 650°C

Explanation: The annealing temperature for ordinary glass, such as soda-lime glass, typically falls within the range of 500°C to 650°C. Annealing is a heat treatment process used to remove internal stresses and improve the strength and durability of glass products. At these temperatures, the glass becomes soft and pliable, allowing the molecules to rearrange themselves into a more stable configuration as the glass cools down slowly and uniformly.

Question 46: The multiplication factor to estimate stature from femur is

  • A. 3.8
  • B. 4.8
  • C. 5.8
  • D. 6.8
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. 3.8

Explanation: In forensic anthropology and osteology, the multiplication factor commonly used to estimate an individual’s stature (height) from the length of the femur (thigh bone) is 3.8. This factor is derived from empirical studies and regression analyses performed on skeletal remains and living individuals. By multiplying the length of the femur by 3.8, an approximate estimate of the individual’s stature can be obtained.

Question 47: The following is not a component of Gustafson’s method:

  • A. Attrition
  • B. Dentition
  • C. Root resorption
  • D. Cementum Apposition
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Dentition

Explanation: Gustafson’s method is a dental age estimation technique that relies on the analysis of specific factors related to tooth wear and changes in tooth structure over time. The components of Gustafson’s method include attrition (wear of tooth surfaces), root resorption (progressive loss of root structure), and cementum apposition (deposition of cementum, the outer layer of the tooth root). Dentition, which refers to the development and arrangement of teeth, is not a direct component of Gustafson’s method.

Question 48: The following formula is used for the determination of stature:

  • A. Gustafson’s
  • B. Karl Pearson’s
  • C. Harrison Gilroy
  • D. Kastle Meyer
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Karl Pearson’s

Explanation: The Karl Pearson’s formula is a widely used method for estimating stature (height) from long bone measurements, particularly the length of the femur (thigh bone) or the humerus (upper arm bone). This formula, developed by the English mathematician and biometrician Karl Pearson, involves multiplying the bone length by a specific factor and adding or subtracting a constant value based on the population-specific data. It is a valuable tool in forensic anthropology and osteology for reconstructing biological profiles from skeletal remains.

Question 49: A fetus become viable by the age of

  • A. 6 months
  • B. 7 months
  • C. 8 months
  • D. 9 months
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. 7 months

Explanation: In obstetrics and fetal development, a fetus is generally considered viable at the age of 7 months (or approximately 24 to 26 weeks of gestation). Viability refers to the ability of the fetus to potentially survive outside the uterus with appropriate medical intervention and support. At 7 months, the fetus has reached a developmental stage where its organs, particularly the lungs, are sufficiently developed to potentially sustain life outside the womb, although the risks and complications are still significant.

Question 50: The total number of torsal bones in a person aged 12 years is

  • A. 5
  • B. 6
  • C. 7
  • D. 8
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. 7

Explanation: The total number of tarsal bones in a person aged 12 years is typically 7. The tarsal bones are a group of seven irregularly shaped bones that form the posterior portion of the foot, collectively known as the tarsus. These bones are the calcaneus (heel bone), talus, navicular, cuboid, and the three cuneiform bones (medial, intermediate, and lateral). The tarsal bones are present at birth and do not undergo further fusion or division during childhood or adolescence.

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