2011 June NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper

Answer: B. Nonporous surfaces

Explanation: The Vacuum Metal Deposition (VMD) method is primarily used for developing latent fingerprints on nonporous surfaces such as glass, metal, or plastics. In this technique, a thin layer of metal (e.g., gold, zinc, or silver) is vaporized and deposited onto the surface, adhering to the residue left by the fingerprint ridges. This method is not suitable for porous surfaces like paper or wood, as the metal vapor would penetrate the porous material, resulting in poor ridge detail.

Answer: B. 1 and 4 are correct.

Explanation: In the primary classification of fingerprints, the formula ‘1/1’ indicates that both the right ring and little fingers have loop patterns. Whorls are represented by a different numerical value in the classification formula. Option 4 is correct because the provided options do not cover all possibilities, and there could be cases where neither finger has a loop or whorl pattern.

Answer: C. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: When recording fingerprints, both rolled impressions (where the finger is rolled from one side to the other) and plain impressions (where the finger is pressed flat onto the surface) are obtained. The reason for taking both types of impressions is to ensure accuracy and detect any potential errors during the recording process. If there is a discrepancy between the rolled and plain impressions, it can indicate a mistake in the rolled impression, which is more prone to distortion. Therefore, taking both types of prints allows for cross-verification and improves the reliability of the fingerprint recording.

Answer: A) Transitional and permanent

Explanation: In the examination of typescripts, two main types of individual characteristics are considered: transitional and permanent. Transitional characteristics are those that change over time due to wear and tear on the typewriter, while permanent characteristics remain consistent throughout the typewriter’s lifespan. These characteristics can include variations in typeface, alignment, spacing, and ribbon usage.

Answer: B. A rolling ball and liquid ink

Explanation: A roller pen, also known as a ball pen or ballpoint pen, uses a small rotating ball at the tip to dispense liquid ink onto the writing surface. The ball is held in place by a socket, and the liquid ink is fed from an ink reservoir. The ink used in roller pens is typically a viscous liquid ink, designed to adhere to the ball and flow smoothly onto the paper or other writing surfaces.

Answer: C. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Ninhydrin is a chemical reagent commonly used to develop latent fingerprints on porous surfaces like paper or cardboard. When ninhydrin reacts with the amino acids present in the fingerprint residue, a purple-colored compound called Ruhemann’s purple is formed, making the fingerprint ridges visible. The assertion that ninhydrin is applied to visualize latent fingerprints as purple-colored visible prints is correct, and the reason that ninhydrin reacts with the amino acids in the fingerprint residue is also correct.

Answer: C. Dandy rolls

Explanation: Watermarks in paper are made with the help of dandy rolls, which are embossed rolls used in the papermaking process. As the paper pulp passes between the dandy rolls, the raised design on the rolls creates a pattern or watermark in the paper. This watermark can be used for security purposes, branding, or identification.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Digital image technology is indeed a powerful tool for recording crime scenes, as it allows for detailed documentation and preservation of evidence. The reason (R) is also correct because digital imaging enables real-time access and sharing of crime scene images, even for those who are not physically present at the location. This can facilitate remote collaboration and analysis by experts or investigators.

Answer: D. Multilevel Management

Explanation: Crime scene management involves several interrelated components, including information management (documentation and data handling), manpower management (assigning and coordinating personnel), and logistics management (managing resources and equipment). However, “multilevel management” is not a recognized component of crime scene management.

Answer: A. Modus operandi

Explanation: The term “modus operandi” refers to a criminal’s characteristic and repetitive pattern of behavior or method of operation. It describes the unique way in which a criminal carries out their criminal activities, including their preferred techniques, habits, and behaviors. Analyzing the modus operandi can help investigators link multiple crimes to the same perpetrator and develop profiles or leads.

Answer: B. Recognise, preserve, collect, interpret and reconstruct

Explanation: The objective of any crime scene investigation follows a specific sequence of steps. First, the crime scene must be recognized and secured to preserve the evidence. Next, the evidence is carefully collected, ensuring proper documentation and handling. The collected evidence is then interpreted and analyzed to reconstruct the events and establish the facts of the case.

Answer: D. (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), (d) (i)

Explanation: The matching is as follows:
(a) Vancetich – (iii) Fingerprints (Vancetich method of fingerprint development)
(b) ER Henry – (iv) Classification of Fingerprints (Henry system of fingerprint classification)
(c) Hilton – (ii) Documents Examination (Hilton’s work in document examination)
(d) Oden & Hoffsten – (i) Ninhydrin test (Oden and Hoffsten’s work on the ninhydrin test for fingerprints)

Answer: B. Level 1, level 2, level 3 details

Explanation: In fingerprint analysis, there are three levels of details that are used for comparison and identification:
Level 1: Pattern type (arch, loop, whorl)
Level 2: Ridge path, ridge endings, bifurcations
Level 3: Ridge unit details (pores, ridge edges, dots, and other minute details)
The correct order for comparing these details is Level 1 (pattern type) first, followed by Level 2 (ridge paths and minutiae), and finally Level 3 (ridge unit details) for a more detailed comparison.

Answer: A. Tandem bullet

Explanation: A tandem bullet, also known as a multi-component bullet, consists of two or more separate projectiles stacked one behind the other. When fired, these projectiles separate after entering the target, creating multiple wound tracks and exit wounds. This can result in a single wound of entry but multiple wounds of exit, as the projectiles follow different paths after entering the body.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: An Improvised Explosive Device (IED) refers to a homemade bomb or explosive device constructed from readily available materials. Examples of IEDs include:
– Acid bomb: A bomb made by mixing certain acids with other materials to create an explosive reaction.
– Letter bomb: A bomb concealed within a letter or package for delivery.
– Molotov cocktail: A improvised incendiary device made from a bottle filled with a flammable liquid, often gasoline, and a rag as a wick.

Answer: C. Maiti

Explanation: The Maiti test, also known as the sodium rhodizonate test, is a chemical test used to detect the presence of nitrites in gunshot residue samples. Nitrites are formed as a byproduct of the combustion of gunpowder, and their detection can help establish the presence of gunshot residue. The Maiti test involves treating the sample with a sodium rhodizonate solution, which turns pink or red in the presence of nitrites.

Answer: C. Rifling

Explanation: The terms “broaching” and “swaging” are associated with the rifling process in firearms. Rifling refers to the spiral grooves cut into the barrel of a gun, which imparts a spin on the bullet or projectile as it travels down the barrel. Broaching is the process of cutting these rifling grooves into the barrel, while swaging is the process of forming the bullet or projectile to match the rifling grooves, ensuring a tight fit and proper spin.

Answer: D. Gutter fracture

Explanation: When a bullet glances or strikes the skull at an angle, it can produce a gutter fracture, which is a type of fracture characterized by a groove or furrow in the bone. A gutter fracture is caused by the bullet’s tangential impact and the temporary cavity it creates, resulting in a trench-like injury on the outer surface of the skull. This type of fracture is typically associated with grazing or glancing gunshot wounds to the head.

Answer: D. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that tremors in writing strokes may indicate possible forgery of signatures is correct. Tremors or irregularities in the writing can be a sign of an attempted forgery, as the forger may struggle to replicate the natural flow and rhythm of the genuine signature. The reason (R) is also correct because tremors due to age or illness tend to be more consistent and repeated at regular intervals, while tremors in a forged signature are often irregular and inconsistent, as the forger attempts to mimic the genuine signature.

Answer: B. Teeth

Explanation: The Boydes method, also known as the Boydes technique, is a method used in forensic odontology to estimate age from teeth. It involves analyzing the formation and calcification patterns of teeth, specifically the eruption of permanent teeth and the level of root development. By comparing these dental features to established age standards, the Boydes method can provide an estimate of an individual’s age, especially in cases where other age estimation methods may be limited or unavailable.

Answer: C. Calcaneum

Explanation: The calcaneum, also known as the heel bone, is the first bone in the human body to develop an ossification center (a point of bone formation). The ossification center in the calcaneum appears before birth, typically around the sixth month of fetal development. This early ossification of the calcaneum is crucial for weight-bearing and movement after birth.

Answer: A. Oligospermia

Explanation: Oligospermia is a condition characterized by an abnormally low sperm count in the semen. It is a form of male infertility or subfertility, where the concentration of sperm cells in the ejaculate is lower than the normal range. Oligospermia can result from various factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, environmental exposures, or underlying medical conditions.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: Haemoptysis is the coughing up or spitting of blood from the lungs or respiratory tract. The blood expelled during haemoptysis is typically bright red in color because it is oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. The assertion (A) that haemoptysis blood is bright red in color is correct, and the reason (R) that it is because the blood is oxygenated is also correct.

Answer: C. Neutrophil

Explanation: The Davidson’s body, also known as the neutrophil extracellular trap (NET), is a structure found within neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Neutrophils are a key component of the immune system and play a crucial role in combating infections. The Davidson’s body is a web-like structure composed of DNA and proteins released by neutrophils to trap and immobilize pathogens such as bacteria and fungi.

Answer: D. 47 XXY

Explanation: Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, caused by an additional X chromosome. The karyotype (chromosomal makeup) in Klinefelter syndrome is 47,XXY, where there is an extra X chromosome in addition to the typical 46,XY karyotype found in most males. This extra X chromosome leads to the characteristic physical and developmental features associated with Klinefelter syndrome.

Answer: B. Sex

Explanation: The Washburn’s index, also known as the cranial index or skull index, is a measurement used in forensic anthropology to determine the sex of an individual from skeletal remains. It is calculated by dividing the maximum breadth of the skull by its maximum length and multiplying by 100. This index helps distinguish between male and female skulls based on the shape and proportions of the cranium, which tend to differ between the sexes.

Answer: B. 1 and 4 are correct.

Explanation: In the primary classification of fingerprints, the first step is to divide all the patterns into loops and whorls (statement 1 is correct). The addition of “1” to both the numerator and denominator of the classification formula is an arbitrary convention (statement 4 is correct). However, whorls do not include arches (statement 2 is incorrect), and loops are not the only patterns with numerical values (statement 3 is incorrect).

Answer: D. 24 hours

Explanation: Sudden death is typically defined as a death that occurs unexpectedly and rapidly, usually within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms or without any apparent preceding illness or injury. If a person dies within 24 hours of the initial onset of symptoms or the precipitating event, without suffering from a known disease or injury, it is considered a sudden death.

Answer: B. Time since death

Explanation: Forensic entomology, the study of insects and their interactions with decomposing remains, is primarily used to estimate the time since death or the postmortem interval (PMI). By analyzing the types of insects present, their life stages, and their patterns of colonization on the body, entomologists can provide an estimate of the time elapsed since death occurred.

Answer: C. Mycobacterium

Explanation: Putrefaction is the process of decomposition of organic matter by bacteria and fungi, resulting in the breakdown of tissues and the release of foul odors. Bacteria such as Proteus, Staphylococcus, and Clostridium are commonly associated with putrefaction and play a role in the decomposition of bodies. However, Mycobacterium species are not typically associated with the putrefaction process.

Answer: D. Traumatic asphyxia

Explanation: Traumatic asphyxia is a form of mechanical asphyxia that occurs due to severe external compression of the chest and abdomen, leading to impaired breathing and respiratory failure. In cases of traumatic asphyxia, there is often damage to the neck structures, such as bruising or fractures of the larynx or trachea, caused by the external compression forces.

Answer: B. Alcohol dehydrogenase

Explanation: The enzyme responsible for metabolizing alcohol in the liver is called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). ADH catalyzes the oxidation of ethanol (the type of alcohol present in alcoholic beverages) to acetaldehyde, which is then further broken down by other enzymes. The activity of alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver plays a crucial role in the body’s ability to process and eliminate alcohol.

Answer: A. Cadaveric spasm

Explanation: Cadaveric spasm, also known as rigor mortis, is the temporary stiffening of the muscles after death. While it can help establish the time since death, it does not provide a precise estimation. Marbling (discoloration of blood vessels), foamy liver (caused by putrefaction), and hypostasis (gravitational pooling of blood) are all changes that can help estimate the time since death more accurately by examining their progression.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Glass fragments can be compared and potentially linked to the same source using various techniques:
Physical matching: Examining the physical characteristics and attempting to fit the fragments together.
Refractive index: Measuring the refractive index of the glass, which can vary depending on the composition and manufacturing process.
Density gradient tube: Analyzing the density of the glass fragments using a density gradient tube, which separates materials based on their density.

Answer: A. Poison that stimulate respiratory centre – Amphetamines

Explanation: Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants that can increase respiratory rate and stimulate the respiratory center in the brain. Cocaine is a central nervous system stimulant that can cause respiratory depression and failure of the respiratory center. Strychnine is a poison that affects the spinal cord and causes muscle spasms, including those of the respiratory muscles, leading to respiratory failure. Atropine is a substance that can cause hallucinations and delirium, but it is not primarily classified as a hallucinogen.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Microscopic examination of paint chips from a car can provide valuable information for forensic analysis. It may involve:
Sequence of paint layers: Determining the order and number of paint layers applied to the vehicle.
Colour of the paint: Analyzing the colour and pigments used in each layer.
Elemental profile of paint: Identifying the chemical elements and their concentrations in the paint using techniques like energy-dispersive X-ray spectroscopy (EDS).

Answer: C. Tool marks

Explanation: A striagraph is an instrument used in forensic science to examine and analyze tool marks. It is a specialized microscope that allows for the detailed study of the striations, or fine parallel lines, left on surfaces by tools or other objects. By examining the unique patterns and characteristics of these tool marks, forensic investigators can potentially link them to specific tools or weapons used in a crime.

Answer: A. Firing pin

Explanation: Compression tool marks are formed by the firing pin of a firearm when it strikes the primer of a cartridge case during firing. The impact of the firing pin creates a characteristic impression or mark on the primer, which can be analyzed and compared to potential suspect firearms. Other tools like wrenches, knives, or needles are not typically associated with the formation of compression tool marks in the context of firearms examination.

Answer: D. Choline esterase

Explanation: Human semen contains various components, including:
Deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNA)
Hyaluronidase (an enzyme)
Lipoglycoprotein (a complex of lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins)
However, choline esterase is an enzyme that is typically not found in human semen.

Answer: C. Cut hair

Explanation: For nuclear DNA profiling, samples that contain the root of the hair are preferred, as the root contains living cells with nuclear DNA. Fallen and plucked hairs typically include the root and can be used for DNA profiling. However, cut hair, which consists only of the shaft and lacks the root, does not contain nuclear DNA and is not suitable for nuclear DNA profiling.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Explanation: The assertion (A) is incorrect because the number of cells lost from the gastrointestinal tract per day can be sufficient for mitochondrial DNA testing from fecal matter. The reason (R) is also incorrect because the inhibitory effect of bile pigments on DNA testing is not related to their concentration but rather to their ability to degrade DNA and inhibit the amplification process during DNA analysis.

Answer: C. Metopic

Explanation: The metopic suture, also known as the frontal suture, is the first cranial suture to fuse as a person ages. It is located between the two halves of the frontal bone and typically fuses between the ages of 2 and 8 years. The other sutures, such as the sagittal, coronal, and lambdoidal sutures, fuse at later stages of life.

Answer: A. Melanin

Explanation: Keratins are a type of structural protein found in hair, nails, and skin. These sulfur-containing proteins are interlinked to form stable fibrillar structures. The pigment that gives hair its color is melanin, which is produced by melanocyte cells and incorporated into the keratin fibrils during hair growth.

Answer: B. Petrographic Microscope

Explanation: A polarizing microscope, also known as a petrographic microscope, is a type of microscope that utilizes polarized light to analyze the optical properties of materials, particularly minerals and crystalline substances. It is widely used in mineralogy, geology, and material science for the identification and characterization of various materials based on their optical properties, such as birefringence, pleochroism, and extinction angles.

Answer: B. Partition between the gas and an immobile liquid phase

Explanation: Gas-liquid chromatography (GLC) is an analytical technique based on the principle of partitioning between a mobile gaseous phase and an immobile liquid phase. In GLC, the sample mixture is vaporized and carried by an inert gas (mobile phase) through a column containing a liquid stationary phase coated on an inert solid support. The components of the sample mixture partition between the gas and liquid phases based on their relative affinities, resulting in their separation and detection.

Answer: C. Photovoltaic cell

Explanation: In visible spectrophotometry, which measures the absorption or transmission of light in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum, a photovoltaic cell is commonly used as a detector. A photovoltaic cell is a device that converts light energy into electrical energy, making it suitable for detecting and measuring the intensity of light transmitted or absorbed by a sample in a spectrophotometer.

Answer: D. GC-MS

Explanation:
AAS (Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy) is used for the analysis of metals by measuring the absorption of light by gaseous atoms.
ICP-MS (Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry) is an analytical technique that can detect and quantify metals and other elements in a sample.
NAA (Neutron Activation Analysis) is a nuclear technique used for the qualitative and quantitative analysis of metals and other elements by measuring the characteristic radiation emitted by the sample after being bombarded with neutrons.
GC-MS (Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry) is primarily used for the analysis of organic compounds and is not well-suited for the analysis of metals.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: The Rf (retardation factor) value in chromatography depends on various factors:
Solvent system employed: The polarity and composition of the solvent system used in the chromatographic separation can affect the Rf value of a compound.
Temperature: Changes in temperature can influence the interactions between the compound and the stationary phase, affecting the Rf value.
Chamber saturation: The level of saturation of the chromatography chamber with solvent vapors can impact the movement of the solvent front and, consequently, the Rf value.

Answer: B. (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (iii)

Explanation:
(a) Gettler’s Test – (ii) Drowning (Gettler’s test is used to determine if drowning occurred)
(b) Teichman’s Test – (i) Blood stains (Teichman’s test is used to detect the presence of blood)
(c) Hydrostatic Test – (iv) Live birth (The hydrostatic test is used to determine if a newborn was stillborn or born alive)
(d) Lugol’s iodine – (iii) Vaginal cells (Lugol’s iodine is used to stain and identify vaginal cells)

Answer: C. Red blood cells

Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) are not typically used for DNA analysis because they lack a nucleus and thus do not contain nuclear DNA. The other options, spermatozoa, vaginal cells, and buccal mucosal cells, all contain nuclei and are suitable sources for DNA analysis and profiling in forensic investigations.