Question 1: Dying deposition is a statement of a dying person on oath recorded by the following:
- (A) Defence Lawyer
- (B) Investigating officer
- (C) Magistrate
- (D) The attending doctor
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Magistrate
Explanation: A dying deposition is a statement made by a dying person on oath, typically recorded by a magistrate. This testimony is considered admissible in court as evidence.

Answer
Correct Answers: (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Explanation: The correct associations between these scientists and their subjects of expertise are:
- Locard: Known for the Locard’s Exchange Principle in forensic science, which posits that every contact leaves a trace.
- Galton: A pioneer in fingerprinting, Galton’s work laid the foundation for fingerprint analysis in modern forensics.
- Osborn: His significant contributions to document examination have made it a staple in forensic investigations involving questioned documents.
- Jatar: The name Jatar is not widely recognized in the context of forensic ballistics; this might be a mix-up or a lesser-known contributor to the field.
Question 3: The following is exempted for oral testimony in a court of law except:
- (A) Dying declaration
- (B) Chemical examiner’s report
- (C) Medical report in injury case
- (D) Deposition of a medical witness taken in a lower court
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Dying declaration
Explanation: All options except for a dying declaration are exempted from oral testimony in a court of law. A dying declaration is typically admissible in court without the need for the dying person to testify orally.

Answer
Correct Order of Investigation at a Crime Scene: (B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Explanation: The standard protocol for processing a crime scene involves the following steps:
- Protection of Scene of Crime: Securing the scene is the foremost priority to ensure that evidence is preserved in its original state.
- Sketching and Photography of Crime Scene: Documenting the scene visually through sketches and photographs provides a detailed record before any physical evidence is collected.
- Collection of Clue Material: Systematic collection of evidence follows, with careful attention to maintaining the integrity and chain of custody for each item collected.
- Interview of Witness: Finally, interviews are conducted to corroborate the physical evidence and provide additional insights into the crime.
Question 5: Hydrogen gas is used with the following detector of GLC:
- (A) TCD
- (B) FID
- (C) ECD
- (D) None of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) FID
Explanation: Hydrogen gas is typically used with the Flame Ionization Detector (FID) in Gas Liquid Chromatography (GLC).
Question 6: Exciter filter is used in:
- (A) Comparison microscope
- (B) Electron microscope
- (C) Fluorescent microscope
- (D) Polarising microscope
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Fluorescent microscope
Explanation: Exciter filters are used in fluorescent microscopy to select the excitation wavelength that will stimulate fluorescence in the specimen.
Question 7: In high voltage electrophoresis, increasing the voltage applied to the electrophoretic plates extends the separation capabilities to substances with:
- (A) Low molecular weight
- (B) High molecular weight
- (C) Equal molecular weight
- (D) None of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) Low molecular weight
Explanation: Increasing the voltage applied in high voltage electrophoresis extends the separation capabilities to substances with lower molecular weights.

Answer
Correct Matches: (D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Explanation: The specific uses of the given equipment in forensic examinations are:
- Thin Layer Chromatography: Commonly used for the examination of inks, allowing for the separation of individual components for analysis.
- GLC (Gas Liquid Chromatography): Often utilized in the examination of petroleum products to identify their composition and possible sources.
- Gel Electrophoresis: A technique used in the examination of blood antigens, among other biological molecules, by separating them based on size and charge.
- Soft-X-rays: Employed in the examination of paintings to reveal underdrawings, artist alterations, and authenticity through the visualization of layers not visible to the naked eye.
Question 9: As per base-pairing rule, which of the following is correct?
- 1. A-G
- 2. C-T
- 3. T-G
- 4. G-C
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) G-C
Explanation: According to the base-pairing rule, guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C), and adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T).
Question 10: The fresh blood for DNA fingerprinting is collected preferably in:
- 1. Heparin
- 2. EDTA
- 3. Sodium fluoride
- 4. Potassium fluoride
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) EDTA
Explanation: EDTA is an anticoagulant commonly used to collect fresh blood for DNA fingerprinting as it prevents clot formation without interfering with DNA analysis.
Question 11: A mother belonging to blood group A and father of group AB, cannot have a child of this blood group:
- 1. A
- 2. AB
- 3. O
- 4. B
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) O
Explanation: If the mother is blood group A and the father is AB, the child cannot have blood group O, as O is inherited when both parents contribute an O allele.
Question 12: Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of sugar by:
- 1. Yeast
- 2. Glycerin
- 3. Yogurt
- 4. Alkaloid
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Yeast
Explanation: Ethanol is produced by the microbial fermentation of sugar by yeast, particularly Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Question 13: Following is the sedative drug:
- 1. Diazepam
- 2. Barbiturates
- 3. Chloral hydrate
- 4. Opiates
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam, commonly known as Valium, is a sedative drug used to treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures.
Question 14: THC9 is found in the following:
- 1. Dhatura
- 2. Oleander
- 3. Cannabis Sativa
- 4. Marking nut
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Cannabis Sativa
Explanation: THC9 (Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol) is found in Cannabis Sativa, the plant from which marijuana is derived.
Question 15: Following is an improvised gun:
- 1. Muzzleloader
- 2. Shotgun
- 3. Zip gun
- 4. Automatic powder
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Zip gun
Explanation: A zip gun is an improvised firearm, typically made from crude materials and lacking the sophistication of commercially manufactured firearms.

Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Explanation: In forensic science, understanding the sequence of events related to firearm discharge is crucial for reconstructing crime scenes. The order of dispersion, burning, tattooing, and scorching provides insights into the distance between the firearm and the target. Burning refers to the combustion of gunpowder and the release of hot gases upon firing. Scorching occurs when these gases and flames come into direct contact with the target, causing superficial burns. Tattooing involves the embedding of partially burnt or unburnt gunpowder particles into the skin, resulting in characteristic stippling around the wound. Dispersion refers to the spread of pellets or bullet fragments after exiting the firearm. By arranging these events in order, investigators can estimate the distance between the muzzle and the target, aiding in determining the shooter’s position and the circumstances surrounding the incident.
Question 17: Assertion (A): Fouling is found in the barrel after firing. Reason (R): Because of the presence of gas and unburnt powder in the barrel.
- 1. (A) is true but (R) is false
- 2. (A) is false but (R) is true
- 3. Both (A) and (R) are true
- 4. Both (A) and (R) are false
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true
Explanation: Fouling in firearm barrels is a common occurrence after firing. It is primarily caused by the deposition of bullet materials, residues from gunpowder combustion, and lubricants. The assertion that fouling is present in the barrel after firing is true, as it accumulates over time with repeated use. The reason provided, stating that fouling is due to the presence of gas and unburnt powder in the barrel, is also true. When a firearm is discharged, the burning gunpowder generates gases that propel the bullet forward. However, not all of the powder burns completely, leading to the accumulation of unburnt residues. These residues, along with the gases, contribute to fouling inside the barrel. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, as fouling is indeed caused by the presence of gases and unburnt powder residues.
Question 18: True cylinder in firearm refers to:
- 1. Constriction of the barrel in rifled arms from the muzzle end.
- 2. Constriction of the barrel in shotguns from the muzzle end.
- 3. No constriction of the barrel from the muzzle end in shotguns.
- 4. No constriction of the barrel from the muzzle end in rifled arms.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) No constriction of the barrel from the muzzle end in shotguns.
Explanation: In firearms, the term “true cylinder” refers to a barrel configuration in shotguns where there is no constriction or tapering from the muzzle end. Unlike rifled arms, which have spiral grooves (rifling) inside the barrel to impart spin to the bullet for accuracy, shotguns are typically smoothbore weapons. A true cylinder bore maintains a consistent diameter from the chamber to the muzzle, allowing shotgun pellets or slugs to exit the barrel without any constriction. This configuration is suitable for close-range shooting and produces a wide shot pattern, making it ideal for hunting small game or for self-defense purposes at short distances. The absence of barrel constriction ensures that the pellets or slugs maintain their spread and do not experience any significant narrowing as they travel down the barrel. Therefore, option 3, “No constriction of the barrel from the muzzle end in shotguns,” correctly defines a true cylinder in a firearm.
Question 19: Dermal nitrate test for GSR is used for the detection of the following:
- 1. Carbon dioxide
- 2. Carbon Monoxide
- 3. Nitrite
- 4. Nitrate
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) Nitrate
Explanation: The dermal nitrate test, also known as the paraffin test or diphenylamine test, is a forensic examination used to detect the presence of gunshot residue (GSR) on the hands of a suspect or victim. Gunshot residue consists of particles expelled from a firearm upon discharge and typically contains elements such as lead, barium, and antimony. The test involves coating the suspect’s hands with paraffin wax, which collects any residue present. After the wax solidifies, it is treated with diphenylamine, an acidic solution that reacts with nitrates and nitrites present in the residue. If GSR is present, the diphenylamine solution will produce a characteristic blue coloration, indicating a positive result. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4, “Nitrate,” as the test primarily detects the presence of nitrate compounds, although it may also detect nitrites to some extent. This test provides valuable forensic evidence to link a suspect to a shooting incident based on the presence of GSR on their hands.
Question 20: Collar mark on the body is found in firing case at the range of following:
- 1. 3-inch distance of the weapon
- 2. 6-inch distance of the weapon
- 3. 12-inch distance of the weapon
- 4. Pressed contact of the weapon with the body
Answer and Explanation
Answer: More than one correct Answer
Explanation: Collar marks can be found at various distances, including intermediate ranges of up to 6 inches from the weapon.

Answer
Correct Sequence for the Test Method of Fiber: (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Explanation: The proper sequence for testing fiber typically follows these steps:
- Morphology: This is the initial step, which involves looking at the shape and form of the fibers under a microscope.
- Visual Examination: After morphology, a more general visual examination is performed, possibly with the naked eye or low magnification, to assess the color and texture.
- Physical Examination: The fiber is subjected to various physical tests to determine its tensile strength and elasticity.
- Instrumental Examination: Advanced techniques such as spectrometry or chromatography are used to analyze the fiber’s composition and chemical properties.

Answer
Correct Matches: (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation: The components typically found in the given biological fluids are:
- Blood: Contains haemoglobin, which is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body.
- Semen: Contains choline, a water-soluble essential nutrient.
- Saliva: Contains ammonium thiocyanate, a compound that can be used in certain tests to detect the presence of saliva.
- Milk: Contains lactose, which is a disaccharide sugar comprising one molecule each of glucose and galactose.
Question 23: A clear transparent secretion squeezed out of the mammilla of a pregnant woman is known as:
- 1. Lochia
- 2. Lactum
- 3. Colostrum
- 4. Lysine
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Colostrum
Explanation: Colostrum, a crucial component of breast milk, serves multiple purposes in newborns’ health and development. It contains high concentrations of antibodies, particularly immunoglobulin A (IgA), which help protect the infant from infections by forming a protective barrier in the gastrointestinal tract. Colostrum also provides essential nutrients, vitamins, and minerals necessary for the baby’s growth and development. Additionally, it acts as a laxative, helping to clear the newborn’s intestines of meconium, the first stool. Furthermore, colostrum aids in the establishment of beneficial gut bacteria, promoting a healthy digestive system in infants.
Question 24: Asbestos sheet is a:
- 1. Animal fibre
- 2. Vegetable fibre
- 3. Mineral fibre
- 4. None of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Mineral fibre
Explanation: Asbestos is a mineral fiber composed of thin, microscopic fibrils primarily consisting of silica and alumina. It is known for its heat resistance, tensile strength, and insulating properties, making it a popular material in various industries, including construction, automotive, and manufacturing. Asbestos was commonly used in building materials such as insulation, roofing, and floor tiles due to its fire-resistant qualities. However, prolonged exposure to asbestos fibers poses significant health risks, including respiratory diseases such as asbestosis and mesothelioma, a type of cancer affecting the lungs and abdomen.
Question 25: Mercerized cotton fibres have:
- 1. Medulla
- 2. Twisted shape
- 3. Scales
- 4. Cortex
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) Twisted shape
Explanation: Mercerization is a chemical treatment applied to cotton fibers to improve their strength, luster, and dye affinity. During the mercerization process, cotton fibers are treated with a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide, causing them to swell and straighten out. This results in increased surface area and a more uniform appearance. Additionally, the treatment causes the fibers to become more rounded and twisted, enhancing their strength and durability. Mercerized cotton fibers exhibit improved moisture absorption and dye uptake, making them ideal for high-quality textiles and garments with enhanced sheen and color vibrancy.
Question 26: Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Skid marks of a vehicle are useful in motor vehicle accidents.
Reason (R): Skid marks can determine the speed and size of the vehicle.
Choose the correct option:
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true
- (B) (A) is true but (R) is false
- (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true
Explanation: Skid marks left by vehicles can indeed provide valuable information in motor vehicle accident investigations. These marks can help determine factors such as the speed, size, and direction of the vehicle involved in the accident. By analyzing skid marks, forensic experts can reconstruct the events leading up to the accident and gain insights into the dynamics of the collision. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, as skid marks are indeed useful in motor vehicle accident investigations due to their ability to provide valuable information about the incident.
Question 27: For comparison of different samples of soil, the most preferred method is:
- (A) Density distribution
- (B) Spectrographic analysis
- (C) Neutron Activation analysis
- (D) Electrophoresis
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) Density distribution
Explanation: When comparing different samples of soil, density distribution analysis is the most preferred method. Density gradient analysis helps define the density of soil, which is crucial for comparing soil samples. By analyzing the density distribution of soil components, forensic investigators can identify similarities and differences between samples, aiding in soil comparison and classification. This method allows for precise and reliable comparisons, making it an essential tool in forensic soil analysis.
Question 28: Striation tool marks are produced by:
- (A) Hammer
- (B) Firing pin
- (C) Rifling of firearm
- (D) Wrench
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Rifling of firearm
Explanation: Striation tool marks are fine parallel scratches or grooves produced on a surface, commonly seen on bullets and cartridge casings. These marks are primarily caused by the rifling inside the barrel of a firearm. Rifling refers to the spiral grooves cut into the inner surface of a firearm’s barrel, which imparts spin to the projectile, stabilizing its trajectory. As the bullet travels down the barrel, it interacts with the rifling, leaving unique striation marks that can be analyzed to identify the type of firearm used and potentially match it to specific ammunition or weapons.

Answer
Provided Answer: (A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Expert Assessment: This answer does not seem correct. A more accurate matching, based on typical fracture patterns associated with glass, would be:
- Heat: Often causes wavy fractures due to differential expansion and contraction.
- Impact Side of Glass Sheet: Typically shows radial fractures that emanate from the point of impact.
- Opposite Side of Impact: Tends to display concentric fractures, which are circular patterns around the point of impact.
- Edge of Glass Sheet: May show rib marks which are features on the edge indicating the direction of force.
If the above associations were options, they would represent a more accurate reflection of the nature of impact and the resultant glass fracture type.
Question 30: Erased number on metal can be restored by:
- (A) Rubbing
- (B) Filing
- (C) Steaming
- (D) Chemical etching
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) Chemical etching
Explanation: Erased numbers on metal surfaces can be restored using chemical etching techniques. Chemical etching involves applying an acidic or alkaline solution to the metal surface, which selectively removes material and reveals the erased or obscured markings. This process is effective in restoring erased numbers, characters, or markings on metal surfaces without causing damage to the underlying material. Chemical etching is widely used in forensic investigations and industrial applications for restoring and enhancing markings on metal surfaces.
Question 31: The following material can be examined by Density Gradient tube method:
- (i) Soil
- (ii) Ink
- (iii) Paint chips
- (iv) Cement
Code:
- (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
- (B) (i) and (iii) are correct
- (C) (ii) and (iv) are correct
- (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
Explanation: Density Gradient tube method is suitable for examining materials such as soil, paint chips, and cement. This method involves layering different density solutions in a tube and allowing the material to settle into distinct layers based on their densities. By comparing the density distribution of the material with known standards, forensic analysts can identify and classify the components of the sample. This technique is particularly useful in forensic soil analysis, where it helps determine the composition and characteristics of soil samples collected from crime scenes.
Question 32: As per Krogman’s degree of accuracy in sex determination of adult skeleton remains, maximum accuracy is obtained from the single bone:
- (A) Skull
- (B) Sacrum
- (C) Pelvis
- (D) Long bones
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Pelvis
Explanation: According to Krogman’s degree of accuracy in sex determination of adult skeleton remains, the pelvis provides the highest degree of accuracy. The pelvic bones exhibit sexual dimorphism, meaning there are distinct differences between male and female pelvises. Forensic anthropologists can analyze various features of the pelvis, such as the shape of the pelvic inlet, the angle of the pubic arch, and the width of the sciatic notch, to determine the sex of an individual with high accuracy. Therefore, when determining the sex of adult skeleton remains, the pelvis is considered the most reliable single bone for accurate sex determination.

Answer
Correct Sequence for the Eruption of Permanent Teeth: (C) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Explanation: The ages at which permanent teeth typically erupt are:
- First Molar: Usually erupts around the age of 6 to 7 years, as one of the first permanent teeth to appear.
- Canines: Typically erupt between 11 to 12 years, following the incisors and first molars.
- Second Molar: Generally comes in at 12 to 14 years, helping to shape the final structure of a young adult’s oral cavity.
- Third Molar: Also known as wisdom teeth, usually erupts much later from 17 to 25 years, and sometimes it does not erupt at all.
Question 34: The lambdoid suture of the skull fuses completely by the age of:
- (A) 25 yrs
- (B) 35 yrs
- (C) 45 yrs
- (D) 55 yrs
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 45 yrs
Explanation: The lambdoid suture of the skull fuses completely by the age of 45 years. Sutures are fibrous joints in the skull that connect individual cranial bones. The lambdoid suture is located at the back of the skull and separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone. As a person ages, the sutures gradually fuse together through a process called cranial ossification. By the age of 45 years, the lambdoid suture typically completes its fusion, resulting in a fully formed and solidified cranial structure.
Question 35: The following can be established by the examination of footprints:
- (A) Sex
- (B) Age
- (C) Gait
- (D) Weight
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Gait
Explanation: Examination of footprints can reveal information about an individual’s gait. Gait refers to the manner of walking or the pattern of movement of the limbs during locomotion. By analyzing footprints, forensic experts can assess various aspects of an individual’s gait, such as stride length, step width, foot angle, and rhythm of movement. This information can be useful in forensic investigations for identifying suspects, determining the sequence of events at a crime scene, and reconstructing the movements of individuals involved in criminal activities.
Question 36: Pubic angle of pelvis griddle in a female is:
- (A) Right angle
- (B) Obtuse angle
- (C) Acute angle
- (D) None of these
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Obtuse angle
Explanation: The pubic angle of the pelvic girdle in females is an obtuse angle. The pubic angle is formed by the meeting of the pubic bones at the front of the pelvis. In females, the pubic angle is wider and more obtuse compared to males, where it is narrower and more acute. This difference in the angle of the pubic arch is one of the characteristics used in forensic anthropology for determining the sex of skeletal remains. By measuring the pubic angle, forensic experts can make accurate determinations regarding the sex of an individual based on skeletal remains.
Question 37: Mechanical erasures can be deciphered by the following method:
- (A) Ammonium sulphite
- (B) Ordinary photography
- (C) Photography in reflected light
- (D) Dyes
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) Ammonium sulphite
Explanation: Mechanical erasures, such as those made by rubbing or scratching, can be deciphered using the Ammonium sulphite method. Ammonium sulphite is a chemical solution that reacts with the residual marks left behind by mechanical erasures, causing them to become visible. By applying Ammonium sulphite to the surface containing the erased marks and exposing it to specific conditions, forensic investigators can reveal and document the erased information. This method is commonly used in forensic document examination to recover altered or tampered information from documents, such as erased signatures, numbers, or text.

Answer
Correct Matches: (A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Explanation: The specific applications of these forensic instruments are as follows:
- Comparison-Microscope: Primarily used in the examination of bullets to compare striations and match them to a specific firearm.
- AFIS (Automated Fingerprint Identification System): A system used for matching fingerprints, often in criminal investigations.
- V.S.C (Video Spectral Comparator): Often utilized in the examination of documents to detect alterations, forgeries, or to reveal hidden features.
- Gel Electrophoresis: A laboratory technique used for the separation and analysis of proteins and nucleic acids, it can be used in the examination of blood antigens.

Answer
Correct Sequence for Latent Fingerprint Development Methods: (D) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Explanation: The methods of developing latent fingerprints typically follow a sequence based on the type of surface and the condition of the print:
- Powder Development Method: Often the first step on non-porous surfaces, where fine powder is applied to reveal prints.
- Iodine Fuming: An early technique used on porous materials where iodine vapors react with oils and fats to visualize prints.
- Ninhydrin Method: Commonly used on porous surfaces, reacting with amino acids in sweat to produce a purple-blue color.
- Laser Technique: A more advanced method that may be used after other techniques, especially useful when prints are faint or on challenging surfaces.
Question 40: Age of water soluble ink can be determined by the following method:
- (A) Ordinary photography
- (B) Chloride diffusion of ink
- (C) ESDA
- (D) Projectina
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Chloride diffusion of ink
Explanation: The age of water-soluble ink can be determined using the Chloride diffusion method. This method involves analyzing the diffusion rate of chloride ions present in ink over time. As ink ages, the chloride ions diffuse into the surrounding paper at a predictable rate, which can be measured and correlated with the age of the ink. By conducting chemical tests to assess the diffusion of chloride ions, forensic investigators can estimate the approximate age of water-soluble ink used in documents. This method is commonly employed in forensic document examination to determine the authenticity and age of handwritten or printed materials.
Question 41: Writing on a charred document can be deciphered by the following method:
- (A) UV Photography
- (B) Visual Examination
- (C) IR Photography
- (D) X-ray Photography
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Visual Examination
Explanation: Writing on a charred document can be deciphered primarily through visual examination. When a document is charred or partially burnt, the heat may cause the paper to darken or become brittle, but the writing may still be visible underneath the charred layers. Forensic experts carefully examine the charred document under appropriate lighting conditions and use magnification tools if necessary to identify any remaining traces of writing or indentations caused by pen pressure. This visual examination process allows forensic investigators to recover and document any legible information that may be present on the charred document, aiding in the investigation of arson cases or other incidents involving fire-damaged documents.
Question 42: After death due to asphyxia, the left side of the heart is:
- (A) Empty
- (B) Congested
- (C) Cyanosed
- (D) A and B
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Congested
Explanation: After death due to asphyxia, the left side of the heart is often congested. Asphyxia is a condition characterized by a severe deficiency of oxygen supply to the body’s tissues, leading to cellular hypoxia. In cases of death resulting from asphyxia, the heart may exhibit congestion due to the body’s inability to effectively circulate oxygenated blood. Congestion in the left side of the heart is a common post-mortem finding in individuals who have suffered from asphyxia. This congestion may be observed during autopsy examinations and can provide important forensic evidence regarding the cause and manner of death in cases involving asphyxiation.
Question 43: Excess of CO2 in the blood will:
- (A) Stimulate respiratory centre
- (B) Depress respiratory centre
- (C) Alternately stimulate and depress respiratory centre
- (D) No effect on respiratory centre
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Depress respiratory centre
Explanation: An excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood typically depresses the respiratory centre. The respiratory centre, located in the brainstem, regulates breathing by monitoring the levels of CO2 and oxygen in the bloodstream. When CO2 levels rise above normal (hypercapnia), it signals the respiratory centre to increase the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate excess CO2 and restore proper blood gas levels. However, if CO2 levels remain elevated for an extended period, it can lead to respiratory depression, where the respiratory centre becomes less responsive, resulting in shallow or irregular breathing patterns. This respiratory depression can have serious consequences and may require medical intervention to restore normal breathing function.
Question 44: The hydrostatic test for live birth depends on changes in the specific gravity of:
- (A) Liver
- (B) Heart
- (C) Lungs
- (D) Kidney
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Lungs
Explanation: The hydrostatic test for live birth relies on changes in the specific gravity of the lungs. This test is a forensic examination performed during autopsy to determine whether a newborn baby took a breath after delivery and was therefore born alive. In cases of live birth, the newborn’s lungs will have air in them, causing a decrease in the specific gravity compared to the lungs of a stillborn baby, which would be filled with fluid and have a higher specific gravity. By assessing the specific gravity of the lungs and comparing it to established standards, forensic experts can provide valuable evidence regarding the circumstances surrounding the birth and potential signs of life in the newborn.
Question 45: Pathological loss of memory, as seen in Korsakoff’s psychosis, leads the patient to fill gaps with purely imaginary events. These fabrications are called:
- (A) Delirium
- (B) Confabulations
- (C) Hallucination
- (D) Depression
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Confabulations
Explanation: Pathological loss of memory, such as that seen in Korsakoff’s psychosis, often leads patients to fill gaps with purely imaginary events. These fabrications, which are not based on reality, are referred to as confabulations. Confabulations are false or distorted memories that individuals create to fill in missing information or to make sense of confusing or inconsistent situations. In cases of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which is typically associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency, memory impairment and confabulation are common symptoms. Patients may invent stories or events to explain gaps in memory, leading to the creation of elaborate but false narratives that may be mistaken for genuine memories.
Read the paragraph and then answer the below questions.
A blood stained body of a person was found in a Varandha with four small wounds on the left temporal side of skull. There was a large, everted and irregular wound on the other side of the skull. A country made katta (small 12 bore fire arm) was found 4 ft away from the dead body. There was no sign of cadaveric spasm in hand of the deceased.
Question 46: The absence of cadaveric spasm in hand and the presence of a country-made weapon (katta) at the crime scene is suggestive of:
- (A) Accidental death
- (B) Suicidal death
- (C) Homicidal death
- (D) Natural death
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Homicidal death
Explanation: The absence of cadaveric spasm in the hand and the presence of a country-made weapon (katta) at the crime scene are both suggestive of homicidal death. Cadaveric spasm, also known as instantaneous rigor, is a phenomenon where the muscles of the body stiffen immediately after death in the position they were in at the moment of death. Its absence in the hand suggests that the victim did not die by their own hand (suicide) but rather by external force. The presence of a country-made weapon, such as a katta, further supports the likelihood of homicide, as such weapons are often associated with criminal activities and acts of violence perpetrated by others. Therefore, these findings together point towards the likelihood of a homicidal death, where the victim was killed by another individual.
Question 47: The large, everted, and irregular size of a wound is suggestive of:
- (A) Entry wound of a gun
- (B) Exit wound of a gun
- (C) Stab wound
- (D) Lacerated wound by a blunt object
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) Exit wound of a gun
Explanation: The large, everted, and irregular size of a wound is characteristic of an exit wound of a gun. When a bullet passes through the body, it creates an entrance wound where the bullet enters the body and an exit wound where it exits. Exit wounds are typically larger and more irregular in shape compared to entrance wounds due to the outward pressure caused by the bullet’s passage through the tissue. Additionally, exit wounds may exhibit everted edges, where the edges of the wound are turned outward, further contributing to their irregular appearance. By assessing the characteristics of a wound, forensic experts can often determine whether it is an entrance or exit wound, providing valuable information for reconstructing the events surrounding a gunshot injury.
Question 48: The range of fire can be determined by:
- (A) Size of wound
- (B) Position of gun at the scene of the crime
- (C) Dispersion of pellet
- (D) Shape of wound
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Dispersion of pellet
Explanation: The range of fire can be determined by assessing the dispersion pattern of pellets from a firearm. When a firearm is discharged, the pellets spread out in a characteristic pattern depending on the distance between the muzzle of the gun and the target. This dispersion pattern can be used to estimate the range at which the firearm was discharged. Close-range shots typically result in a denser pellet spread, while shots from a greater distance lead to wider dispersion. Forensic experts analyze the distribution and density of pellet impacts on the target to ascertain the approximate range of fire, providing valuable information for reconstructing the events of a shooting incident.
Question 49: The individualization of a blood sample can be done by:
- (A) Colour test
- (B) Crystal test
- (C) ABO grouping
- (D) DNA typing
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) DNA typing
Explanation: The individualization of a blood sample, or the process of identifying the specific individual to whom a blood sample belongs, can be achieved through DNA typing. DNA typing, also known as DNA profiling or DNA fingerprinting, involves analyzing the unique genetic information present in an individual’s DNA to create a profile that is distinct to that person. This profile can be compared to DNA profiles obtained from other samples, such as blood stains collected from a crime scene, to determine whether they match. DNA typing offers a highly accurate method of individualization, as each person’s DNA is unique (with the exception of identical twins), making it a powerful tool in forensic investigations for identifying suspects and linking them to crime scenes.
Question 50: What is Corpus delecti evidence in a case of murder by firearm?
- (A) Revolver
- (B) Blood stains
- (C) Fire bullet
- (D) Dead body
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) Dead body
Explanation: Corpus delecti evidence in a case of murder by firearm refers to the physical evidence that establishes the fact that a crime has been committed. In the context of a murder by firearm, the dead body of the victim is a crucial piece of corpus delecti evidence. It provides tangible proof of the crime, demonstrating that someone has been killed as a result of a firearm-related incident. The examination of the dead body can yield important forensic evidence, such as gunshot wounds and ballistic evidence, which can help investigators determine the circumstances surrounding the death and identify potential suspects. Therefore, the dead body serves as the primary corpus delecti evidence in cases of murder by firearm, playing a central role in criminal investigations and legal proceedings.