2014 December NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper, Part -1

Answer: C. Combination of impression and striated marks

Explanation: When a plier or a similar tool is used to loosen a tight knob, the jaws of the tool can leave a combination of impression marks (from the pressure exerted) and striated marks (from the gripping and twisting action). The combination of these two types of marks is characteristic of the action of pliers or wrenches on tight knobs or surfaces.

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: When matching and comparing layers of paint samples, various factors can provide valuable information. Surface discoloration, changes in tint due to weathering, and layers of dirt can all contribute to the analysis and comparison of paint samples. These factors can help in determining the age, environmental exposure, and other characteristics of the paint samples, which can be crucial in forensic investigations.

Answer: C. Angle of progression

Explanation: The spacing between striations caused by a tool with a thin cutting edge is primarily influenced by the angle of progression, which is the angle at which the tool is moved across the surface. A steeper angle of progression will result in closer spacing between striations, while a shallower angle will lead to wider spacing. The nature of the tool’s teeth, the angle of tilt, and the relative hardness of the tool and surface can also affect the striations but have a lesser impact on the spacing between them.

Answer: C. China

Explanation: India Ink, a type of ink commonly used in calligraphy, drawing, and writing, was invented in ancient China. It is a carbon-based ink made from a mixture of carbon black, water, and a binding agent. The name “India Ink” is a misnomer, as it originated in China and was later brought to Europe through trade routes, where it was mistakenly associated with India.

Answer: A. makes it more stable to rapid temperature changes

Explanation: Adding boron to molten glass improves its thermal shock resistance, making it more stable to rapid temperature changes. Boron acts as a flux in the glass melt, lowering the viscosity and allowing for better workability. It also helps to strengthen the glass structure, making it more resistant to cracking or shattering due to sudden temperature fluctuations.

Answer: B. Feces

Explanation: Skatole is a byproduct of the breakdown of tryptophan, an amino acid present in proteins, by intestinal bacteria. It is primarily responsible for the characteristic odor associated with feces. Skatole is produced in the human digestive system and contributes to the distinct fecal odor, making it a characteristic odor of feces.

Answer: A. Roots

Explanation: The roots of hair are the preferred part used for DNA typing and establishing identity. The root portion of the hair contains the hair follicle, which is rich in cellular material and nucleated cells. These cells contain intact DNA, making the root portion ideal for DNA extraction and analysis. The cuticles, medulla, and other parts of the hair shaft do not contain nucleated cells and are less suitable for DNA typing.

Answer: D. Precipitins

Explanation: When human serum is injected into an animal, the animal’s immune system recognizes the human proteins as foreign and produces antibodies called precipitins. Precipitins are a type of antibody that can form insoluble complexes with the corresponding antigen, leading to precipitation. This property of precipitins is used in various forensic and serological tests, such as identifying species-specific blood or other bodily fluids.

Answer: B. Keratin

Explanation: As the hair follicles reach the top of the skin, the outer layer of the hair begins to harden into a fibrous protein called keratin. Keratin is the primary structural component of hair, nails, and the outermost layer of the skin. It is a tough and insoluble protein that provides strength and protection to these structures. The hardening of the outer layer of the hair into keratin is a crucial step in the formation of the hair shaft.

Answer: D. Acidulated water

Explanation: In the soaking method for analyzing seminal stains, the stained area is cut and soaked in acidulated water. Acidulated water is water that has been made slightly acidic, typically by the addition of a mild acid like acetic acid or hydrochloric acid. This acidic environment helps to extract and dissolve the seminal components, such as proteins and enzymes, from the stain, allowing for further analysis and testing.

Answer: B. No carbon required

Explanation: In questioned document examination, the term “NCR” stands for “No Carbon Required.” It refers to a type of paper that produces a copy without the need for a carbon sheet or transfer film. NCR paper is coated with a microencapsulated dye or ink, which is released when pressure is applied, creating a duplicate copy. This technology eliminated the need for carbon paper in creating multiple copies of documents.

Answer: D. Ruhemann’s purple

Explanation: The formation of the final purple-colored product resulting from the reaction between amino acids and ninhydrin is known as Ruhemann’s purple. This reaction is widely used in forensic science and biochemistry to detect and visualize latent fingerprints or other traces of amino acids on porous surfaces like paper or fibers. The formation of Ruhemann’s purple is a characteristic of the ninhydrin reaction and is used as a confirmatory test for the presence of amino acids.

Answer: B. It bleeds writings

Explanation: The ninhydrin method is preferred for developing latent fingerprints on porous surfaces like paper. However, it is not recommended for use on paper with ballpoint pen writings because the ninhydrin reagent can cause the ink to bleed or spread, potentially obscuring or distorting the written text. This phenomenon, known as “bleeding,” occurs due to the interaction between the ninhydrin solution and the ink components, leading to the ink spreading and making the writings illegible.

Answer: D. Projectina Universal

Explanation: The Projectina Universal is a specialized instrument used in questioned document examination for the physical matching of torn pieces of paper. It utilizes a combination of transmitted and oblique lighting techniques to enhance and visualize the unique characteristics of the paper edges, such as fiber patterns, tears, and other distinctive features. By carefully aligning and matching these features, forensic document examiners can determine if two or more torn paper fragments originated from the same larger document.

Answer: A. 1024

Explanation: In the primary classification of fingerprints, there are 1024 classes. This classification system is based on the patterns formed by the ridges on the fingertips, known as the “ridge pattern types.” The primary classification divides fingerprints into four main categories: loops, whorls, arches, and composite patterns. Each of these categories is further subdivided into subclasses based on specific ridge characteristics, resulting in a total of 1024 possible classes.

Answer: C. 50 cms

Explanation: At full term, which is typically around 40 weeks of gestation, the average length of a human fetus is approximately 50 centimeters (cm) or 19.7 inches. This length is measured from the top of the head to the heel, also known as the crown-to-heel length. The length can vary slightly, but 50 cm is considered the average length for a full-term newborn baby.

Answer: A. Nuclear sexing

Explanation: Barr and Bertram are associated with nuclear sexing, a technique used to determine the biological sex of an individual based on the presence or absence of the Barr body (also known as the sex chromatin) in cell nuclei. The Barr body is a condensed, inactivated X chromosome found in female somatic cells. This technique was developed by Murray Barr and Keith Bertram in the late 1940s and is widely used in forensic investigations, particularly in cases involving skeletal remains or body fluids.

Answer: C. Stature

Explanation: Karl Pearson’s formula, also known as the Pearson’s linear regression formula, is commonly used in forensic anthropology to estimate the stature (height) of an individual based on the measurements of long bones, such as the femur or humerus. This formula establishes a mathematical relationship between the length of the bone and the stature, taking into account factors like sex, ancestry, and population-specific data. It is a widely accepted method for reconstructing the approximate height of an individual from skeletal remains.

Answer: A. Race

Explanation: The ratio of the length and breadth of the skull, known as the cranial index, is used in forensic anthropology to help determine the race or ancestry of an individual. Different racial groups tend to exhibit distinct patterns and variations in the shape and proportions of the skull. For example, individuals of European descent generally have longer and narrower skulls (dolichocephalic), while those of Asian descent often have broader and shorter skulls (brachycephalic). By analyzing the cranial index, forensic anthropologists can gain insights into the potential racial or ancestral affiliation of skeletal remains.

Answer: D. No time limit

Explanation: In India, there is no specific time limit prescribed for the exhumation (digging up and removal) of buried bodies or remains. The decision to exhume a body is made on a case-by-case basis by the relevant authorities, such as the police or the judiciary, based on the circumstances and requirements of the investigation or legal proceedings. While exhumations are generally carried out as soon as possible after burial to ensure better preservation of evidence, there is no legal time restriction on when an exhumation can be conducted in India.

Answer: D. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Explanation: The color changes in blood can provide valuable information about the cause of death or the presence of certain substances. The correct matching between the color changes and their causative factors is as follows:
(a) Cherry red color – (i) Cyanide poisoning
(b) Reddish purple color – (iv) Usual post-mortem changes
(c) Bright red color – (ii) Carbon monoxide poisoning
(d) Chocolate brown color – (iii) Potassium chlorate poisoning

Answer: C. Skull

Explanation: The frontal sinus is a pair of air-filled cavities located within the frontal bone of the skull, just above the eyes. The structure and configuration of the frontal sinus are unique to each individual, even among identical twins, making it a valuable feature for personal identification in forensic investigations. The unique pattern of the frontal sinus can be used for positive identification by comparing ante-mortem (before death) radiographs or CT scans with post-mortem (after death) skeletal remains.

Answer: D. Somatometric measurements

Explanation: Somatometric measurements, which involve measuring various physical characteristics of the body, such as height, weight, and limb proportions, cannot provide positive identification on their own. While these measurements can help narrow down the search or provide supporting evidence, they are not unique enough to establish positive identification definitively. In contrast, dental records, fingerprints, and DNA profiling are considered reliable methods for positive identification due to their unique and individualistic nature.

Answer: C. To perform autopsy

Explanation: Performing autopsies is not one of the primary objectives of forensic anthropology. Forensic anthropologists are primarily concerned with the analysis and interpretation of skeletal remains and other physical evidence related to the human body. Their main objectives include field recovery (locating and recovering human remains), establishing a biological profile (estimating age, sex, ancestry, stature, etc.), and identifying trauma or other evidence relevant to the manner of death. However, conducting autopsies, which involve the examination of internal organs and tissues, falls within the domain of forensic pathologists or medical examiners.

Answer: B. Tattoo

Explanation: Tattoos are not useful for determining personal identification from skeletal remains alone. While tattoos can be valuable in identifying individuals when soft tissues are present, they do not leave any permanent marks or evidence on bones. Dentition (dental records), bone disorders (such as pathological conditions or congenital anomalies), and surgical implants (like prosthetic joints or plates) can provide valuable information for personal identification from skeletal remains, as they leave distinctive markers or characteristics that can be analyzed and compared with ante-mortem records.

Answer: A. 2-7%

Explanation: Cooking gas, which is typically a mixture of propane and butane, forms an explosive mixture with air when the concentration of the gas falls within the range of 2-7% by volume. This range is known as the explosive range or the flammable range. Outside this range, the mixture is either too lean (insufficient fuel) or too rich (insufficient oxygen) to support an explosion. Understanding the explosive range of cooking gas is crucial for safety measures and preventing potential accidents or explosions.

Answer: C. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation: In forensic and material science, understanding the origin and characteristics of fibers is crucial. Wool, categorized as an animal fiber, is made from the fleece of sheep and other animals. It has crimps or waves, which trap air and make it an excellent insulator. Nylon is a synthetic fiber created through a chemical process, known for its strength and elasticity. Cotton, derived from the cotton plant’s seed pod, is a plant fiber cherished for its softness and breathability. Asbestos is a mineral fiber, historically used for its resistance to heat and electrical conductivity but is now less common due to its health risks, including lung diseases and cancer.

Answer: D. None of the above

Explanation: A ball cartridge fired from a rifle is not loaded with any of the options mentioned. A ball cartridge, also known as a ball ammunition or a ball round, typically contains a full metal jacket bullet with a cylindrical or ogival shape. It is designed for general-purpose use and does not have any specialized features like armor-piercing capabilities or incendiary effects. The term “ball” refers to the basic, standard ammunition used in rifles or other firearms.

Answer: A. d = (π/θ) tan l

Explanation: In the case of a rifled barrel, the angle of rifling (θ), the pitch of rifling (l), and the caliber of the rifle (d) are related by the equation d = (π/θ) tan l. The pitch of rifling is the distance traveled by the bullet in one complete revolution inside the barrel, and the angle of rifling is the angle at which the rifling grooves are cut into the barrel. The caliber is the internal diameter of the barrel. This relationship helps in determining the optimal combination of rifling parameters for a given caliber, ensuring accurate and stable bullet flight.

Answer: A. more than that of 12-bore gun

Explanation: In shotguns and other smooth-bore firearms, the bore size is typically expressed in terms of the gauge or bore number. The bore number indicates the number of lead balls of that diameter that make up a pound. A lower bore number corresponds to a larger internal diameter of the barrel. Therefore, a 10-bore gun has a larger internal cross-sectional diameter than a 12-bore gun, which in turn has a larger diameter than a 20-bore gun. The 8-bore gun has an even larger diameter than the 10-bore gun.

Answer: A. Inhalation

Explanation: Crack, also known as crack cocaine, is a freebase form of cocaine that is typically smoked or inhaled. The process of heating and inhaling the vapors from crack cocaine is known as “freebasing” or “smoking crack.” Crack is a highly potent and addictive substance, and inhalation is the primary route of abuse due to the rapid onset of its effects when the vapors are absorbed through the lungs.

Answer: C. Meprobamate

Explanation: Meprobamate is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant drug belonging to the class of carbamate compounds. It was historically used as an anxiolytic (anti-anxiety) and sedative medication but has been largely replaced by safer alternatives due to its potential for abuse and dependence. CNS depressants like meprobamate slow down brain activity, producing sedative and calming effects. Methcathinone, ecgonine, and methylphenidate are stimulants that have the opposite effect, increasing brain activity and producing a heightened state of alertness or euphoria.

Answer: D. Ammonium molybdate test

Explanation: The ammonium molybdate test is a recommended screening test for the detection of organophosphorous compounds, which include various pesticides, insecticides, and nerve agents. This test involves the formation of a blue complex when organophosphorous compounds react with ammonium molybdate in the presence of hydrogen peroxide. The intensity of the blue color can provide an indication of the presence and concentration of these compounds. Other tests like Marquis’, Fraehde’s, and Husemann’s tests are primarily used for the detection of different classes of drugs or compounds.

Answer: B. Methaqualone

Explanation: The main active ingredient in Mandrax, a sedative-hypnotic drug, is methaqualone. Methaqualone is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant that belongs to the quinazolinone class of drugs. Mandrax tablets were widely abused for their sedative and euphoric effects, particularly in the 1960s and 1970s, before being made illegal in many countries due to their high potential for abuse and addiction. Meprobamate, methaamphetamine, and methylphenidate are different drugs with different effects and applications.

Answer: A. Secobarbital

Explanation: Secobarbital, a barbiturate derivative, is known by the street name “Red Devils” due to the red color of the capsules or tablets containing this drug. Secobarbital is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant that was previously used as a sedative and hypnotic medication but has been largely replaced by safer alternatives due to its high potential for abuse and dependence. The term “Red Devils” refers specifically to the red-colored secobarbital capsules or tablets that were commonly abused for their sedative and euphoric effects.

Answer: C. T-A

Explanation: In the double-stranded structure of DNA, the complementary base-pairing follows the pattern of Adenine (A) pairing with Thymine (T), and Guanine (G) pairing with Cytosine (C). This specific base-pairing is known as complementary base-pairing, and it is the foundation of the DNA double helix structure. The correct complementary base pair is T-A, where the Thymine base on one strand pairs with the Adenine base on the complementary strand through hydrogen bonding.

Answer: C. Cut DNA at specific sites

Explanation: In the Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) technique, restriction enzymes play a crucial role by cutting DNA molecules at specific recognition sequences. These enzymes are endonucleases that recognize and cleave double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences, resulting in DNA fragments of varying lengths. The ability of restriction enzymes to precisely cut DNA at specific sites is essential for the RFLP technique, which involves analyzing the resulting fragment patterns to identify genetic variations or polymorphisms.

Answer: D. Enamel

Explanation: For blood-grouping using the absorption-elution technique, the enamel portion of teeth is not preferred. The absorption-elution technique involves absorbing blood group antigens onto the tooth surface and then eluting (extracting) them for analysis. Enamel, being the hardest and most mineralized part of the tooth, does not absorb antigens as effectively as other tooth tissues. The dental pulp, cementum, and dentin are better suited for this technique as they can more readily absorb and retain blood group antigens.

Answer: C. Both monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies

Explanation: The immunological test strips used to confirm the presence of human blood typically contain a combination of both monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific and target a single epitope (binding site) on the target antigen, while polyclonal antibodies can recognize multiple epitopes on the same antigen. By incorporating both types of antibodies, the test strips can provide higher sensitivity and specificity in detecting human blood, reducing the chances of false positives or false negatives.

Answer: B. Oswald Avery

Explanation: Oswald Avery, an American scientist, is credited with defining the role of DNA as the vehicle for the generational transfer of heritable traits. In 1944, Avery and his colleagues conducted a groundbreaking experiment that demonstrated that DNA, and not proteins, carried the genetic instructions that could transform the properties of bacteria. This discovery laid the foundation for understanding DNA as the hereditary material and paved the way for further advancements in molecular genetics and DNA profiling techniques.

Answer: B. The secondary and back-scattered electrons

Explanation: In a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM), the magnified image of a particle or sample is formed by the detection of secondary and back-scattered electrons. When the primary electron beam from the SEM interacts with the sample, it causes the emission of secondary electrons from the sample surface and the reflection of back-scattered electrons from the sample. These secondary and back-scattered electrons are collected and processed to generate the magnified image, providing detailed information about the sample’s topography and composition.

Answer: B. Decreasing λ, increasing both n and α

Explanation: To increase the resolving power (R) of an objective lens, the following conditions should be met: 1. Decrease the wavelength of light (λ) used for illumination. Shorter wavelengths allow for higher resolution. 2. Increase the refractive index (n) of the object space. A higher refractive index allows for a wider angle of acceptance and higher numerical aperture. 3. Increase the half-angle (α) of the outermost rays entering the lens. A larger angle of acceptance increases the numerical aperture and improves resolution. By decreasing the wavelength (λ) and increasing both the refractive index (n) and the half-angle (α), the resolving power (R) of the objective lens can be maximized according to the given formula.

Answer: D. Inversely proportional to √V

Explanation: According to the de Broglie relationship, the wavelength (λ) of waves associated with electrons accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is inversely proportional to the square root of the potential difference (√V). This relationship is given by the equation: λ = (h/√(2meV)) Where: h is the Planck constant m is the mass of the electron e is the charge of the electron As the potential difference (V) increases, the electrons gain more kinetic energy, and their associated wavelength decreases, following an inverse square root relationship.

Answer: C. are emitted when a beam of primary electrons strike the object.

Explanation: In a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM), secondary electrons are emitted from the sample surface when the beam of primary electrons strikes the object or specimen. The primary electrons interact with the atoms in the sample, causing the ejection of loosely bound electrons from the sample surface. These ejected electrons, known as secondary electrons, are then detected and used to generate the magnified image of the sample’s surface topography and composition.

Answer: A. Isotropic

Explanation: A substance that behaves in the same way to light polarized in any direction is said to be isotropic. Isotropic materials have uniform physical properties in all directions, meaning their optical, mechanical, or other properties are the same regardless of the direction of observation or measurement. Examples of isotropic substances include liquids, gases, and amorphous solids like glass. In contrast, anisotropic substances exhibit different properties depending on the direction, such as crystals or materials with a preferred orientation of molecules or structures.

Answer: D. Hostile witness

Explanation: During an examination-in-chief, which is the questioning of a witness by the party that called them, leading questions are generally not allowed. However, an exception is made for hostile witnesses, as they are considered uncooperative or biased against the party calling them. In such cases, the court may permit the use of leading questions to elicit relevant information from a hostile witness during the examination-in-chief. Leading questions are questions that suggest the desired answer or contain the answer within the question itself.

Answer: D. High

Explanation: The High Court is an appellate court in the judicial system. An appellate court is a court that has the authority to review decisions and judgments made by lower courts and to either affirm, modify, or reverse those decisions. The High Court serves as an appellate court for cases appealed from lower courts, such as District and Sessions Courts or subordinate courts. It has the power to review and revise the judgments and orders of the lower courts within its jurisdiction.

Answer: B. Perjury

Explanation: Making false statements under oath amounts to the criminal offense of perjury. Perjury is the intentional act of swearing a false oath or falsifying evidence while under oath, either verbally or in writing. It is considered a serious offense as it undermines the integrity of the judicial system and the administration of justice. Perjury can lead to legal consequences, including fines or imprisonment, depending on the jurisdiction and the severity of the offense.

Answer: A. S. 45

Explanation: In Indian courts, DNA fingerprinting evidence has been accepted as admissible evidence under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Section 45 deals with the opinion of expert witnesses and states that when the court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, or of science, or art, or as to the identity of handwriting or fingerprints, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant facts. DNA fingerprinting, being a scientific technique, falls under the purview of Section 45, allowing expert opinions and analysis to be presented as evidence in legal proceedings.

Answer: Wrong question.

Explanation: The question itself seems to be incorrectly stated or ambiguous, as the options provided do not match the given list items correctly. The list items refer to specific sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) related to sexual offenses, but the options do not align with the stated sections. Without a clear understanding of the context or the specific legal provisions being referenced, it is difficult to provide an accurate explanation for this question.