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2011 December NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper

Question 1: Which of the following formula helps in the determination of age?

  • A. Karl-Pearson
  • B. Trotter and Gleser
  • C. Dupertuis and Hadden
  • D. Gustafsons
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Gustafsons

Explanation: The Gustafson formula is used to estimate age based on the measurements of long bones, particularly the femur. It is a method commonly used in forensic anthropology and bioarchaeology to determine the age of skeletal remains.

Question 2: Causing disappearance of evidence by a forensic scientist can be punished under

  • A. Sec. 201 of Indian Penal Code
  • B. Sec. 201 of Criminal Procedure Code
  • C. Sec. 301 of Indian Penal Code
  • D. Sec. 301 of Criminal Procedure Code
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Sec. 201 of Indian Penal Code

Explanation: Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code deals with causing the disappearance of evidence of an offense or providing false information to screen an offender. If a forensic scientist intentionally causes the disappearance of evidence related to a case, it can be punished under this section.

Question 3: Which of the following preservative is used for preserving hair for DNA analysis?

  • A. Normal saline
  • B. Dimethyl sulfoxide
  • C. Rectified spirit
  • D. No preservative is required
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. No preservative is required

Explanation: Hair is a robust source of DNA, and no preservative is typically required for DNA analysis. However, it is important to store hair samples properly and avoid exposure to extreme conditions that may degrade the DNA.

Question 4: Main components of High explosive ‘Picratol’ is

  • A. TNT and PETN
  • B. TNT and Ammonium picrate
  • C. RDX and Ammonium picrate
  • D. Ammonium nitrate and Ammonium picrate
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. TNT and Ammonium picrate

Explanation: Picratol is a high explosive mixture composed of TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and Ammonium picrate. TNT is a widely used military explosive, while Ammonium picrate is a salt formed from picric acid and ammonia. The combination of these two components results in a powerful explosive mixture known as Picratol.

Question 5: Match the following:

I II
(a) Polymorphism (i) Blood grouping
(b) Absorption-elution (ii) Paternity
(c) Luminol Test (iii) Blood detection
(d) HLA (iv) Enzymes

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

  • A. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
  • B. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
  • C. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
  • D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Explanation:

  • (a) Polymorphism: Refers to the existence of different forms or variants of enzymes, proteins, or other substances in a population. It is related to enzymes.
  • (b) Absorption-elution: A technique used in blood grouping and paternity testing, where antibodies are absorbed onto red blood cells and then eluted (released) for analysis.
  • (c) Luminol Test: A chemical test used to detect the presence of trace amounts of blood, based on the chemiluminescent reaction of luminol with the iron in hemoglobin.
  • (d) HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen): A gene complex involved in immune system function and tissue compatibility, used in paternity testing.

Question 6: Key-shaped entry wound of a rifled weapon is caused by

  • A. Dum-dum bullet
  • B. Frangible bullet
  • C. Ricochet bullet
  • D. Tandem bullet
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Ricochet bullet

Explanation: A ricochet bullet, which has bounced off a surface before striking the victim, can cause a key-shaped entry wound. The deformation of the bullet during the ricochet process results in this characteristic shape of the wound.

Question 7: Which of the following are not components of a primer?

  • A. Mercury Fulminate
  • B. Lead Azide
  • C. Antimony Sulphide
  • D. Dexyl Recorcinol
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Dexyl Recorcinol

Explanation: A primer is a small explosive charge used to ignite the main propellant charge in firearms and ammunition. It typically contains lead styphnate, barium nitrate, and other explosive compounds like lead azide or mercury fulminate. Dexyl recorcinol is not a component used in primers.

Question 8: Bevelling of inter table of skull is found in

  • A. Firearm entry wound
  • B. Firearm exit wound
  • C. Stab wounds
  • D. Pond’s fracture
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Firearm entry wound

Explanation: Bevelling of the inter table (the layer between the outer and inner tables of the skull) is typically seen in firearm entry wounds. The bevelling is caused by the outward force of the bullet as it enters the skull, creating a characteristic pattern that can aid in determining the direction of the gunshot wound.

Question 9: Dermal nitrate test detects

  • A. Nitric acid poisoning
  • B. Blood stain
  • C. Gun shot residue
  • D. Organophosphorous poisoning
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Gun shot residue

Explanation: The dermal nitrate test, also known as the paraffin test or nitrate test, is used to detect the presence of nitrate residues, which are characteristic of gunshot residue (GSR). When a firearm is discharged, nitrate residues can be deposited on the hands or clothing of the shooter, and this test can help identify potential shooters.

Question 10: The technique of ‘Portrait Parle’ was developed by which of the following scientist?

  • A. Francis Galton, U.K.
  • B. Alphonse Bertillon, France
  • C. Francis Galton, Austria
  • D. Alphonse Bertillon, U.K.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Alphonse Bertillon, France

Explanation: The technique of ‘Portrait Parle’ (Speaking Portrait) was developed by Alphonse Bertillon, a French criminologist and anthropologist. It was a method of recording detailed physical descriptions of individuals for identification purposes, including measurements of various body parts and distinctive features.

Question 11: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(I) Calvin Goddard (1) Polymerase chain reaction
(II) Muller (2) Superimposition
(III) Farewell (3) Comparison microscope
(IV) Ruxton (4) Brain fingerprinting

Codes: (I) (II) (III) (IV)

  • A. 1 2 3 4
  • B. 2 4 1 3
  • C. 1 3 2 4
  • D. 3 1 4 2
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

  • (I) Calvin Goddard: Associated with the development of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique for DNA amplification.
  • (II) Muller: Developed the superimposition technique for facial reconstruction and identification.
  • (III) Farewell: Developed the comparison microscope, a tool used to compare and analyze forensic evidence.
  • (IV) Ruxton: Pioneered the concept of brain fingerprinting, a technique used to detect information stored in the brain related to specific events or experiences.

Question 12: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  • A. The site of the original or first criminal activity is called as – Primary scene
  • B. The determination of the essential facts of an investigation is known as – Corpus Delicti
  • C. Blood drops that strike a target at an angle less than 90° will create – Elliptical bloodstain
  • D. An eyewitness testimony is a form of – Indirect evidence
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. An eyewitness testimony is a form of – Indirect evidence

Explanation:

  • A. The site of the original or first criminal activity is correctly referred to as the Primary scene.
  • B. The determination of the essential facts of an investigation is known as Corpus Delicti.
  • C. Blood drops that strike a target at an angle less than 90° will create an elliptical bloodstain pattern.
  • D. An eyewitness testimony is considered a form of direct evidence, not indirect evidence.

Question 13: In proportional spacing typewriter all characters occupy

  • A. Same space
  • B. Different space
  • C. Different space according to the size of character
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Different space according to the size of character

Explanation: In a proportional spacing typewriter or printer, each character occupies a different amount of horizontal space based on its width or size. For example, the letter ‘i’ occupies less space than the letter ‘m’. This allows for more efficient use of space and better readability compared to fixed-width fonts where all characters have the same width.

Question 14: X-ray examination in firearm cases is done to help

  • A. to trace pathway of bullet
  • B. to determine the range of fire
  • C. to know type of firearm discharge
  • D. location of bullet which has not come out of body
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. location of bullet which has not come out of body

Explanation: In firearm cases, X-ray examination is often performed to locate bullets or projectiles that have remained inside the victim’s body. This information is crucial for medical treatment and evidence collection. While X-rays can also provide information about the bullet’s pathway and potential range of fire, the primary purpose is to locate the position of the bullet or projectile within the body.

Question 15: The length of a full term foetus is

  • A. 30 cm
  • B. 40 cm
  • C. 50 cm
  • D. 60 cm
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. 50 cm

Explanation: The length of a full-term fetus, which is typically around 38 to 42 weeks of gestation, is approximately 50 centimeters (cm) or 20 inches. This measurement is taken from the top of the head to the heel and is an important parameter in assessing the growth and development of the fetus during pregnancy.

Question 16: Assertion (A): Chance prints may be latent, patent or visible.

Reason (R): All latent fingerprints are chance prints but all the chance prints may not be latent prints.

Codes:

  • A. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • B. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • D. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is correct: Chance prints can be latent (invisible), patent (visible), or visible (clearly visible).
  • Reason (R) is also correct: All latent fingerprints are chance prints because they are unintentionally left behind. However, not all chance prints are latent; some may be patent or visible.

Both the assertion and the reason are true statements, and the reason provides further explanation for the assertion.

Question 17: Which of the following feature of the hip bone is most accurate for determination of sex?

  • A. Ischial tuberosity
  • B. Greater sciatic notch
  • C. Ischiopubic ramus
  • D. Iliac crest
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Ischiopubic ramus

Explanation: The ischiopubic ramus, which is the ridge formed by the union of the ischium and pubis bones, is considered the most accurate feature of the hip bone for determining sex in skeletal remains. The angle and shape of the ischiopubic ramus tend to be more acute and narrow in males, while it is wider and more obtuse in females, reflecting the different pelvic morphology between the sexes.

Question 18: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(1) ESDA (a) Indentations
(2) U.V. Lamps (b) Physical matching of torn paper
(3) Projectina (c) Fluorescence
(4) I.R. image converter (d) Obliterations

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)

  • A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
  • B. (d) (c) (b) (a)
  • C. (a) (c) (b) (d)
  • D. (b) (d) (a) (c)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. (a) (c) (b) (d)

Explanation:

  • (1) ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus): Used to detect indentations on paper or documents, represented by (a).
  • (2) U.V. Lamps: Ultraviolet lamps are used to detect fluorescence in various materials, represented by (c).
  • (3) Projectina: A device used for physical matching of torn paper or documents, represented by (b).
  • (4) I.R. image converter: An infrared imaging device used to visualize obliterations or erasures on documents, represented by (d).

Question 19: Which of the following formulae helps to determine the age of a foetus?

  • A. Haase’s
  • B. Getleri
  • C. Lund-Browder’s
  • D. Wallace’s
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Haase’s

Explanation: The Haase’s formula is used to estimate the gestational age of a fetus based on measurements of the fetal diaphyseal length (the shaft of the long bones). This formula is particularly useful in forensic investigations and cases involving fetal remains, as it provides an estimation of the fetal age based on skeletal development.

Question 20: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(a) Gait pattern (i) Dactylography
(b) Fingerprints (ii) Cheiloscopy
(c) Diatoms (iii) Footprints
(d) Carl-Pearson’s Formula (iv) Drowning
(e) Lip prints (v) Stature

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

  • A. (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)
  • B. (iv) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
  • C. (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii)
  • D. (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii)

Explanation:

  • (a) Gait pattern: Related to the analysis of footprints, represented by (iii).
  • (b) Fingerprints: The study of fingerprints is known as dactylography, represented by (i).
  • (c) Diatoms: The presence of diatoms in body fluids can indicate drowning, represented by (iv).
  • (d) Carl-Pearson’s Formula: Used for estimating stature (height) from skeletal remains, represented by (v).
  • (e) Lip prints: The study of lip prints is known as cheiloscopy, represented by (ii).

Question 21: Assertion (A): pH of blood is normally alkaline in living person but after death pH of blood drops.

Reason (R): Because of the accumulation of carbon-dioxide from glycogenolysis and glycolysis.

Codes:

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • D. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is correct: The pH of blood is slightly alkaline (around 7.4) in living individuals, but after death, the pH drops due to the accumulation of acidic substances.
  • Reason (R) is also correct: One of the reasons for the drop in pH after death is the accumulation of carbon dioxide produced during the processes of glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen) and glycolysis (breakdown of glucose) in the cells.

Both the assertion and the reason are true statements, and the reason provides a valid explanation for the assertion.

Question 22: Which type of writing movement in an unskilled writer’s handwriting is present prominently?

  • A. Whole arm movement
  • B. Wrist movement
  • C. Finger movement
  • D. Forearm movement
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Finger movement

Explanation: In the handwriting of an unskilled or untrained writer, the finger movement is typically the most prominent writing movement. Unskilled writers often rely heavily on finger movements to form letters and words, as they lack the proper training and muscle coordination required for more controlled arm, wrist, or forearm movements. This finger movement can result in inconsistent letter formations and irregular writing patterns.

Question 23: Rectified spirit cannot be used for preserving the viscera in case of

  • A. Aconite poisoning
  • B. Organophosphorous poisoning
  • C. Heavy metals poisoning
  • D. Opiate poisoning
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Organophosphorous poisoning

Explanation: Rectified spirit (a highly concentrated form of ethanol) cannot be used as a preservative for viscera (internal organs) in cases of organophosphorous poisoning. Organophosphorous compounds are sensitive to alcohol, and the use of rectified spirit may lead to the degradation or alteration of these compounds, potentially affecting the analysis and interpretation of the poisoning case.

Question 24: Assertion (A): Breath analyser is used to determine alcohol concentration is by far the most frequently used test in cases of drunken driving.

Reason (R): This is due to the ease and simplicity of operation of the available equipment.

Codes:

  • A. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • D. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is correct: Breath analyzers are the most frequently used tests in cases of drunken driving or driving under the influence (DUI) to determine the alcohol concentration in a person’s breath.
  • Reason (R) is also correct: The widespread use of breath analyzers is due to the ease and simplicity of operation of these devices, as well as their portability and relatively low cost.

Both the assertion and the reason are true statements, and the reason correctly explains the widespread use of breath analyzers in DUI cases.

Question 25: Organochloro pesticides inhibit the action of

  • A. Acetylcholinesterase
  • B. GABA- (Gamma aminobutynic Acid) receptors
  • C. Cholinesterase
  • D. Acetylcholine
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. GABA- (Gamma aminobutynic Acid) receptors

Explanation: Organochloro pesticides, such as DDT, lindane, and endosulfan, are known to inhibit the action of GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid) receptors in the nervous system. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, and the disruption of its function by organochloro pesticides can lead to neurological effects, including convulsions and other neurological disorders.

Question 26: Cause of death in “Café Coronary” is

  • A. Cardiac arrest
  • B. Choking
  • C. Gagging
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Choking

Explanation: “Café Coronary” is a term used to describe a situation where an individual experiences choking while eating, typically due to the obstruction of the airway by food. In such cases, the cause of death is typically attributed to choking, where the airway becomes blocked, leading to a lack of oxygen supply to the lungs and ultimately resulting in death.

Question 27: Disguise in handwriting by unaccustomed hand means:

  1. To write with right hand by left handed writer.
  2. To write with right hand by right handed writer.
  3. To write with left hand by right handed writer.
  4. To write with left hand by left handed writer.

Codes:

  • A. (1) and (3) are correct.
  • B. (1) and (2) are correct.
  • C. (1) and (4) are correct.
  • D. (3) and (4) are correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. (1) and (3) are correct.

Explanation: Disguise in handwriting by unaccustomed hand refers to situations where an individual writes with their non-dominant hand in an attempt to disguise their handwriting. This can happen in two scenarios:

  1. A left-handed writer using their right hand to write (unaccustomed hand).
  2. A right-handed writer using their left hand to write (unaccustomed hand).

Options (2) and (4) do not represent disguise by unaccustomed hand, as they involve writing with the accustomed or dominant hand.

Question 28: Maximum duration till intact spermatozoas can be present in vagina is

  • A. 3 – 6 hrs.
  • B. 7 – 10 hrs.
  • C. 11 – 20 hrs.
  • D. Upto 24 hrs.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Upto 24 hrs.

Explanation: Intact spermatozoa (sperm cells) can typically be found in the vagina for up to 24 hours after sexual intercourse. However, it is important to note that this duration can vary depending on various factors, such as the individual’s physiological conditions, the presence of seminal fluid, and the environmental conditions within the vagina.

Question 29: Which of the following organisms can be mistaken for a spermatozoa?

  • A. Entamoeba Histolytica
  • B. Spirochetes
  • C. Taenia solium
  • D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Trichomonas vaginalis

Explanation: Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan that can be found in the vaginal environment and can be mistaken for a spermatozoa (sperm cell) due to its similar size and motility. Other organisms listed, such as Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan causing amoebic dysentery), spirochetes (spiral-shaped bacteria), and Taenia solium (a tapeworm), have distinct morphologies and are less likely to be confused with spermatozoa.

Question 30: Pugilistic attitude of the cadaver is due to

  • A. Putrefaction
  • B. Rigor mortis
  • C. Coagulation of proteins
  • D. Mummification
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Coagulation of proteins

Explanation: The pugilistic attitude, also known as the boxer’s stance, is a characteristic posture observed in some cadavers. It is caused by the coagulation of proteins in the muscles after death. In this position, the arms are flexed at the elbows, and the hands are raised, resembling a boxing or fighting stance. This posture results from the contraction and stiffening of muscles due to the coagulation of proteins, leading to the characteristic pugilistic attitude.

Question 31: Empty puparia are indicative of

  • A. Pupae do not require food
  • B. Pupae left the puparia for food
  • C. Entire life cycle of insect is completed and adult flies left the puparia
  • D. All of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Entire life cycle of insect is completed and adult flies left the puparia

Explanation: Empty puparia (the hardened outer shell or case that protects the pupa) indicate that the entire life cycle of the insect has been completed, and the adult fly has emerged from the puparium. Puparia are formed during the pupal stage of certain insects, such as blow flies and flesh flies, which are important in forensic entomology for estimating the time since death. When the adult fly emerges, it leaves behind an empty puparium, signifying the completion of the life cycle.

Question 32: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  • A. Modified double-line grid search method is also known as – Grid Method
  • B. Druggist’s fold secondary packaging are containers well suited as – Packaging
  • C. The last stage in crime scene reconstruction is – Hypothesis formulation
  • D. Wet and moist biological evidence should be packed in – Airtight containers
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Modified double-line grid search method is also known as – Grid Method

Explanation: The modified double-line grid search method is indeed known as the Grid Method. This technique involves dividing the search area into a grid and systematically searching each grid square for evidence. It is a widely used method in crime scene investigation for thorough and organized evidence collection.

Question 33: The ligature mark in asphyxial death is a

  • A. Split laceration
  • B. Grazed abrasion
  • C. Patterned abrasion
  • D. Stretch laceration
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Patterned abrasion

Explanation: In cases of asphyxial death due to ligature strangulation, the ligature mark on the victim’s neck is typically a patterned abrasion. This abrasion takes on the shape or pattern of the ligature material used, such as a rope, cord, or wire, leaving a distinct impression on the skin. Patterned abrasions are valuable evidence in identifying the ligature material and reconstructing the events leading to the asphyxial death.

Question 34: Which of the following is an inebriant poison?

  • A. Opium
  • B. Alcohol
  • C. Organophosphorus
  • D. Barbiturate
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Alcohol

Explanation: Alcohol is an inebriant poison, meaning it can cause intoxication and impairment of mental and physical abilities when consumed in excess. Inebriant poisons are substances that primarily affect the central nervous system, leading to a state of drunkenness or stupor. Other examples of inebriant poisons include opium and certain barbiturates. Organophosphorus compounds, on the other hand, are not inebriant poisons but rather pesticides that inhibit cholinesterase enzymes, leading to neurotoxicity.

Question 35: Fracture pattern in a glass sheet due to excessive heat will be

  • A. Regular
  • B. Irregular
  • C. Both regular and irregular
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Irregular

Explanation: When a glass sheet is exposed to excessive heat, the resulting fracture pattern will be irregular. The uneven heating and cooling of the glass can cause internal stresses and irregular cracking patterns. This irregular fracture pattern is distinct from the regular or radial fracture patterns typically observed when glass is impacted or broken by mechanical force.

Question 36: The preferred material to prepare a cast of a shoe print in snow is

  • A. Lacquer
  • B. Sulphur
  • C. Plaster of Paris
  • D. Wax
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Sulphur

Explanation: The preferred material to prepare a cast of a shoe print in snow is Sulphur. Sulphur can be melted and poured into the shoe print impression in the snow to create a detailed cast or mold. This cast can then be analyzed for identifying characteristics, such as tread patterns and other unique features of the shoe. Sulphur is commonly used for casting shoe prints in snow due to its ability to capture fine details and its relatively low melting point. Lacquer, plaster of Paris, and wax are not typically used for creating casts of shoe prints in snow.

Question 37: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(1) Thin layer chromatography (a) Glass
(2) Electrostatic lifting (b) Soil
(3) Differential Thermal Analysis (c) Foot prints
(4) Refractive index (d) Inks

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)

  • A. (d) (c) (b) (a)
  • B. (a) (c) (b) (d)
  • C. (c) (d) (b) (a)
  • D. (b) (c) (d) (a)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. (a) (c) (b) (d)

Explanation:

  • (1) Thin layer chromatography is used for the analysis of inks, represented by (d).
  • (2) Electrostatic lifting is a technique used for footprints, represented by (c).
  • (3) Differential Thermal Analysis is used for soil analysis, represented by (b).
  • (4) Refractive index is a property used in the analysis of glass, represented by (a).

Question 38: Tintometer can be used to compare colour of

  • A. Inks
  • B. Paper
  • C. Glass
  • D. All of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: A tintometer is an instrument used to compare and measure the color intensity of various materials, including inks, paper, glass, and other substances. It can be employed in forensic examinations to analyze and compare the colors of different samples, aiding in the identification and matching of materials.

Question 39: Phadebas reagent is used for the detection of the following:

  • A. Lypase
  • B. Amylase
  • C. Acid phosphatase
  • D. Acid choline esterase
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Amylase

Explanation: The Phadebas reagent is a chromogenic substrate used for the detection and measurement of amylase activity. Amylase is an enzyme responsible for breaking down starch and glycogen, and its presence can be detected in various biological fluids, including saliva, urine, and serum. The Phadebas reagent is commonly used in forensic investigations to detect and analyze amylase levels in samples.

Question 40: Match the following:

List – I List – II
(a) Urine (i) AMY 1
(b) Faeces (ii) Creatinine
(c) Saliva (iii) Urobilinogen
(d) Vaginal secretion (iv) AMY 2

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

  • A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • B. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
  • C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
  • D. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Explanation:

  • (a) Urine is associated with creatinine, represented by (ii).
  • (b) Faeces is associated with urobilinogen, represented by (iii).
  • (c) Saliva is associated with AMY 1 (amylase), represented by (i).
  • (d) Vaginal secretion is associated with AMY 2 (amylase), represented by (iv).

Question 41: Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) is secreted into seminal fluid by the

  • A. Thyroid gland
  • B. Prostrate gland
  • C. Adrenal gland
  • D. Pituitary gland
Answer and Explanation

Answer: B. Prostrate gland

Explanation: Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) is a glycoprotein enzyme produced and secreted by the prostate gland, a part of the male reproductive system. PSA is present in high concentrations in seminal fluid and can be used as a biomarker for detecting and monitoring prostate cancer and other prostate disorders.

Question 42: Urease, an enzyme used for testing urea in urine, breaks down urea and releases:

  • A. Calcium and carbon dioxide
  • B. Phosphate and carbon dioxide
  • C. Ammonia and carbon monoxide
  • D. Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Ammonia and carbon dioxide

Explanation: Urease is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. This reaction is used in diagnostic tests to measure the concentration of urea in urine or other biological samples.

Question 43: Which of the following is incorrect statement?

  • A. Fibres adhering to a fired bullet may establish whether or not the bullet penetrated a certain garment or garments.
  • B. Fibres traces on a vehicle may establish that a particular vehicle was involved in an accident.
  • C. Presence of trace materials on garments may establish the offender’s occupation.
  • D. Presence of trace materials on garments establishes the genetic identity of an individual.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Presence of trace materials on garments establishes the genetic identity of an individual.

Explanation: The presence of trace materials on garments, such as fibers, hair, or other particulates, can provide valuable information about the activities or environment the person has been exposed to, but it does not directly establish the genetic identity of an individual. For genetic identification, DNA analysis from biological samples is typically required.

Question 44: The total number of teeth present in temporary dentition is

  • A. 12
  • B. 16
  • C. 20
  • D. 24
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. 20

Explanation: The temporary or primary dentition, also known as deciduous teeth or “baby teeth,” consists of a total of 20 teeth. These include 8 incisors, 4 canines, and 8 molars. The temporary dentition is eventually replaced by the permanent dentition as a child grows older.

Question 45: Assertion (A): Individualization can be done from buccal mucosal cells.

Reason (R): Because of the presence of Barr bodies.

Codes:

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • B. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • D. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is correct: Individualization, or the identification of a specific individual, can be done from buccal mucosal cells (cells from the inner lining of the cheeks) using DNA analysis.
  • Reason (R) is incorrect: The presence of Barr bodies is not the reason for individualization from buccal mucosal cells. Barr bodies are inactivated X chromosomes found in somatic cells of females and are not directly related to individualization through DNA analysis.

Question 46: Which of the following is an X-ray diffraction method?

  • A. Bragg X-ray Spectrometer Method
  • B. Non-Dispersion X-ray Absorption Method
  • C. X-ray Fluorescence Method
  • D. None of the above
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Bragg X-ray Spectrometer Method

Explanation: The Bragg X-ray Spectrometer Method, also known as X-ray diffraction (XRD), is a technique that utilizes the principles of X-ray diffraction to analyze the crystal structure and composition of materials. It is based on the principles of Bragg’s law, which describes the relationship between the wavelength of X-rays, the spacing between crystal planes, and the angle of diffraction.

Question 47: Which of the following cannot be used as a source of Infra Red Radiation?

  • A. Incandescent Lamp
  • B. Nernst Glower
  • C. Mercury Arc
  • D. Tungsten Lamp
Answer and Explanation

Answer: C. Mercury Arc

Explanation: A mercury arc lamp cannot be used as a source of infrared (IR) radiation. Mercury arc lamps primarily emit ultraviolet (UV) and visible light but do not produce significant amounts of infrared radiation. Incandescent lamps, Nernst glowers (a type of incandescent lamp), and tungsten lamps are suitable sources of infrared radiation due to the thermal radiation emitted by their heated filaments or elements.

Question 48: A direct method to quantitatively determine the chromatographically separated substances can be carried out using

  • A. Colorimetry
  • B. Polarography
  • C. Densitometry
  • D. Fluorimetry
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Colorimetry

Explanation: Colorimetry is a direct method used to quantitatively determine the amounts of substances separated by chromatographic techniques. It measures the absorbance or optical density of the separated components on a chromatogram, which can be correlated to their concentrations. Colorimetry is commonly used in thin-layer chromatography (TLC) and high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) for quantitative analysis.

Question 49: Who discovered poroscopy?

  • A. Edward Henry
  • B. Francis Galton
  • C. William Herschell
  • D. Edmund Locard
Answer and Explanation

Answer: D. Edmund Locard

Explanation: Poroscopy, the study and examination of pore structures on various surfaces, was discovered by Edmund Locard, a pioneer in the field of forensic science and criminology. Locard recognized the importance of analyzing the pore structures on materials like paper, wood, and fabrics, as they could provide unique identifiers and aid in forensic investigations.

Question 50: Assertion (A): In HPLC, either isocratic or gradient elution may be used as a solvent system.

Reason (R): Isocratic solvent system improve a poor HPLC separation and a gradient solvent system has advantage of speed and simplicity.

Codes:

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • B. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • D. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer and Explanation

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is correct: In High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), either isocratic or gradient elution can be used as the solvent system for separating components.
  • Reason (R) is also correct: An isocratic solvent system, where the solvent composition remains constant, is suitable for improving poor separations. A gradient solvent system, where the solvent composition changes during the separation, offers the advantages of speed and simplicity.

Both the assertion and the reason are true statements related to HPLC solvent systems.

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