2010 December NTA UGC-NET / JRF Previous Year Solved Question Paper

Answer: C) Shimla

Explanation: The first government examiner of questioned document laboratory in India was established in Shimla. This laboratory was established to examine and analyze questioned documents, handwritings, and other related forensic evidence.

Answer: C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Explanation: The correct matching is as follows: (a) Principle of exchange – (iv) Locard (b) Dactyloscopy – (iii) Fauld (c) Forensic anthropometry – (ii) Bertillon (d) Forensic ballastics – (i) Burrad

Answer: B) 1972

Explanation: The Lok Nayak Jai Prakash National Institute of Criminology and Forensic Science, located in New Delhi, was established in the year 1972. It is a premier institute dedicated to the study and research of criminology and forensic science.

Answer: B) Forensic serology

Explanation: Blood group typing is a part of forensic serology, which is the study and analysis of body fluids, such as blood, semen, and saliva, in forensic investigations. Blood group typing is used to identify the blood group of an individual from biological evidence found at a crime scene or on a suspect.

Answer: B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Explanation: According to the answer key provided, the correct options for preserving surface footprints are photography, casting, and the electrostatic method. Tracing is not listed as one of the correct options.

Answer: D) (d) (c) (b) (a)

Explanation: Based on the answer key provided, the correct matching of instruments with their respective sources of radiation is: (i) AAS – (d) Hallow cathode lamp (ii) UV radiation – (c) Hydrogen lamp (iii) Visible radiation – (b) Tungsten filament lamp (iv) NAA – (a) RA²²⁶ (Radium-226)

Answer: B) Tesla

Explanation: In Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, the magnetic field strength is measured in units of Tesla. The Tesla is the derived unit of magnetic flux density in the International System of Units (SI). NMR spectroscopy relies on the interaction of atomic nuclei with a strong external magnetic field, and the field strength is typically measured in Tesla or its fractions.

Answer: C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that drugs can be analyzed by High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is true. HPLC is a widely used analytical technique for separating and quantifying drug compounds and their metabolites. However, the reason (R) that the drug gets precipitated with the column is false. In HPLC, the separation of compounds occurs based on their differential partitioning between the mobile and stationary phases, not precipitation.

Answer: B) Abbe’s condenser

Explanation: The Abbe’s condenser is the part of a microscope responsible for focusing the light onto the specimen or object being observed. It is a lens system located below the stage that collects and concentrates light from the illumination source onto the object. This focused light allows for better illumination and resolution when observing specimens under the microscope.

Answer: B) Red cell antigen

Explanation: The ABO blood grouping system is based on the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs). These antigens are referred to as A and B antigens. Individuals with A antigen on their RBCs belong to blood group A, those with B antigen belong to blood group B, those with both A and B antigens belong to blood group AB, and those without either antigen belong to blood group O. The ABO blood grouping is not based on red cell enzymes, plasma proteins, or HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) typing.

Answer: B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that DNA isolated from skeletal remains gives the same pattern as that of blood is correct. DNA is present in all nucleated cells of the body, including bone cells and blood cells. Therefore, the DNA profile obtained from skeletal remains should match the DNA profile obtained from blood samples of the same individual. The reason (R) that DNA is somatically stable is also true. Somatic cells (non-reproductive cells) have stable DNA, which means that the DNA sequence remains unchanged throughout the life of an individual, except for rare mutations.

Answer: D) Haptoglobin

Explanation: Haptoglobin is not a red cell enzyme. It is a plasma protein that binds to free hemoglobin in the bloodstream. Adenylate kinase, phospho glucomutase, and peroxidase are enzymes found within red blood cells (RBCs) and are involved in various metabolic processes.

Answer: A) Single system of electrophoresis

Explanation: The enzymes PGM (Phosphoglucomutase), ESD (Esterase D), and GLO-I (Glyoxalase I) can be analyzed on a single plate using a single system of electrophoresis. This technique separates and visualizes these enzymes simultaneously on the same gel or plate based on their differential migration rates under an applied electric field.

Answer: A) Pyrethrins

Explanation: Pyrethrins are insecticides of vegetable origin, derived from certain species of chrysanthemum flowers. They are natural compounds with insecticidal properties. DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane), Eldrin (an organochlorine insecticide), and Malathion (an organophosphate insecticide) are synthetic insecticides, not of vegetable origin.

Answer: A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that methyl alcohol (methanol) is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant and its toxicity is mainly due to formic acid is true. Methanol is metabolized in the liver to formaldehyde and then to formic acid, which is highly toxic and can cause metabolic acidosis, blindness, and even death. The reason (R) that methanol is metabolized by the liver is also true. The liver is the primary site for the metabolism of methanol in the body.

Answer: B) Dead body was shifted

Explanation: If a dead body is found lying on its back but shows lividity (discoloration due to the pooling of blood) on the front or anterior part of the body, it indicates that the body was shifted after death. Lividity occurs due to the gravitational settling of blood in the dependent parts of the body after death. If the lividity pattern does not match the position of the body, it suggests that the body was moved or shifted from its original position.

Answer: B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Explanation: Papaverum somniferum, also known as the opium poppy, is a plant species that contains various active constituents, including alkaloids. The correct active constituents listed are codeine and papaverine. Codeine is a narcotic analgesic and a naturally occurring alkaloid found in the opium poppy. Papaverine is a non-narcotic alkaloid that has smooth muscle relaxant properties and is used for certain medical conditions. Calatropin and hyoscyamine are not active constituents of the opium poppy plant.

Answer: D) Non-volatile organic compound

Explanation: The ammonium sulfate method is a technique used for the extraction of non-volatile organic compounds, such as drugs and other substances, from biological materials like viscera (internal organs). This method is particularly useful in forensic toxicology for the isolation and analysis of non-volatile organic compounds from visceral samples. Barbiturates, arsenic trioxide, and insecticides are not typically extracted using the ammonium sulfate method, as they may require different extraction techniques based on their chemical properties.

Answer: B) Delusion

Explanation: The term ‘cocaine bugs’ refers to a specific type of delusion experienced by individuals who chronically consume cocaine. This delusion involves the belief that insects or other small creatures are crawling on or under the skin, causing an intense urge to scratch or pick at the skin. This delusion is a manifestation of the psychological and neurological effects of chronic cocaine use, and it is not considered a hallucination or illusion, which involve distortions of sensory perception.

Answer: A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that chemically erased ink writings can be restored is true. There are various forensic techniques, such as chemical and optical methods, that can potentially restore or reveal erased ink writings, depending on the type of ink and erasure method used. However, the reason (R) that the reaction of chemical erasure and ink is reversible is false. The process of chemical erasure typically involves an irreversible chemical reaction that alters or removes the ink from the substrate, making the original writing difficult or impossible to restore completely.

Answer: B) Unburnt particles, smoke, flame, projectiles

Explanation: When a firearm is discharged, the components of the gunshot discharge travel in the following ascending order: Unburnt particles: These are the unburnt gunpowder particles or residues that are ejected first from the muzzle of the firearm. Smoke: The combustion of gunpowder produces smoke, which follows the unburnt particles. Flame: The burning of the gunpowder generates a brief flash or flame, which travels after the smoke. Projectiles: The bullet or projectile is the last component to leave the muzzle, propelled by the expanding gases from the burning gunpowder. This order is important in forensic investigations involving gunshot residue analysis and reconstructing the events surrounding a shooting incident.

Answer: C) Frangible

Explanation: In police training firing ranges, frangible bullets are commonly used for safety reasons. Frangible bullets are designed to break apart or disintegrate upon impact with a hard surface, reducing the risk of ricochets and minimizing potential injuries. These bullets are typically made of a specialized material, such as compressed powders or polymer composites, that fragments on impact. Dum-dum bullets are prohibited under international law due to their expansive and deforming nature, which can cause unnecessary suffering. Explosive bullets are also generally not used in training scenarios. Tracer bullets are primarily used for military purposes to aid in trajectory visualization and not typically employed in police training ranges.

Answer: C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that rifling in a self-loading rifle (SLR) helps to shoot a target with greater accuracy is true. Rifling refers to the spiral grooves cut into the barrel of a firearm, which imparts a spinning motion to the projectile as it travels down the barrel. This spin stabilizes the projectile’s flight, improving accuracy and reducing the effects of crosswinds or other environmental factors.

The reason (R) that rifling helps in the reduction of pellet dispersion is false. Pellet dispersion refers to the spread or dispersal of multiple pellets or shot from a shotgun. However, in the case of a rifle like an SLR, rifling helps to reduce the dispersion of a single projectile (bullet) by stabilizing its trajectory, thereby improving accuracy.

Answer: B) 4 2 1 3

Explanation: The correct matching is as follows:
I. Griess Test – 4. Presence of nitrite (The Griess test is used to detect the presence of nitrites, which can indicate the presence of gunshot residue)
II. Empty Cartridge case at scene of occurrence – 2. Pistol (Empty cartridge cases are typically associated with pistols or handguns)
III. Powder pattern – 1. Infra red photography (Infrared photography can be used to visualize and document gunshot residue patterns)
IV. Wads at scene of occurrence – 3. Shot gun (Wads are used in shotgun shells and may be found at the scene of a shotgun discharge)

Answer: B) Puppi’s

Explanation: The Puppi’s rule is a forensic technique used to determine the sequence of gunshot wounds on a skull or cranium. It is based on the principle that the fracture patterns and characteristics of the bone around each gunshot wound can provide clues about the order in which the shots were fired.

The Puppi’s rule considers factors such as the direction of the radiating fractures, the degree of beveling (the sloping or angling of the bone around the wound), and the presence of secondary fractures caused by subsequent shots. By analyzing these features, forensic experts can reconstruct the sequence of shots that impacted the skull, which is crucial in understanding the circumstances surrounding a shooting incident.

Answer: A) I and II are correct.

Explanation: The singing effect, also known as the whistling or sizzling effect, is a characteristic observed in certain types of fibers when they are burned or exposed to high temperatures. This effect is most commonly associated with animal fibers like hair and wool. When hair or wool fibers are burned, they tend to produce a hissing or whistling sound, known as the singing effect. This phenomenon is caused by the rapid escape of gases through the microporous structure of these fibers as they burn. The singing effect is not typically observed in synthetic fibers like nylon or natural plant fibers like cotton.

Answer: D) I, II and III are correct.

Explanation: DNA can be isolated from the root, cortex, and cuticle of a hair strand. The root, which is the living part of the hair, contains nucleated cells and is the primary source of DNA. The cortex and cuticle, which are the non-living parts of the hair, may also contain traces of nuclear DNA from the root cells. The medulla, which is the central core or channel running along the hair shaft, does not contain nucleated cells and is therefore not a source of DNA. It is composed of keratin and other proteins but lacks genetic material.

Answer: D) Mitochondrial DNA can be extracted from human hair shaft if root is absent.

Explanation: The statement that mitochondrial DNA can be extracted from the human hair shaft if the root is absent is false. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is present in the mitochondria, which are organelles found in the living cells of the hair root. The hair shaft itself does not contain mitochondria or mitochondrial DNA. Therefore, if the root is absent, it is not possible to extract mtDNA from the remaining hair shaft.

Answer: A) III IV II I

Explanation: The correct matching is as follows:

(a) Urobilinagen Test – III. Faecal matter (Urobilinogen is excreted in feces and can be detected in faecal matter)

(b) Gunzberg’s Test – IV. Vomit (Gunzberg’s test can detect the presence of bile in vomit)

(c) Creatinine Test – II. Urine (Creatinine is a waste product excreted in urine and is commonly used to assess kidney function)

(d) Starch-Iodine Test – I. Saliva (The starch-iodine test is often used to detect the presence of amylase in saliva)

Answer: C) Black eye (Racoon eye)

Explanation: A black eye, also known as a raccoon eye, is a bruise or discoloration around the eye area caused by trauma or injury. While it may be painful and visually apparent, it is generally considered a minor injury and does not amount to grievous hurt according to legal definitions. Permanent loss of hearing, fracture of a bone, and permanent disfiguration of the face are all considered grievous hurt as they involve permanent privation of functions, disfigurement, or serious bodily injury.

Answer: D) Pyrex is one of the most common trade names of soda lime glass.

Explanation: The statement that Pyrex is one of the most common trade names of soda-lime glass is not true. Pyrex is a brand name for a type of borosilicate glass, which is different from soda-lime glass. Soda-lime glass is a common type of glass used for windows, bottles, and other applications, made by melting a mixture of sodium oxide (soda), calcium oxide (lime), and silica sand. Pyrex, on the other hand, is a low-thermal-expansion borosilicate glass known for its excellent heat resistance and durability.

Answer: C) to determine the side from which force has been applied.

Explanation: The RRR formula, or the Radial, Reverse and Reverse pattern, is a technique used in the examination of fractured glass to determine the side from which the force was applied. It involves analyzing the fracture patterns and characteristics, such as the direction of radial cracks, the presence of reverse cracks, and the overall fracture behavior. By studying the RRR pattern, forensic experts can determine whether the force was applied from the inside or outside of the glass, which can provide valuable information in cases involving glass breakage, such as burglaries or vehicle accidents.

Answer: A) Day light

Explanation: To accurately compare and distinguish soil samples from different sources based on their color, the comparison should be carried out under daylight conditions. Daylight provides the most natural and consistent illumination, allowing for the accurate perception and differentiation of colors in soil samples. Incandescent and fluorescent lights can alter the perceived color due to their specific wavelength emissions, making it more challenging to accurately compare soil colors from different sources.

Answer: A) All are correct.

Explanation: All of the listed parameters influence the nature and characteristics of tool marks left on surfaces or objects. The horizontal angle, vertical angle, pressure applied, and the specific side of the tool blade used can all affect the shape, depth, and overall appearance of the tool mark. These factors are crucial in interpreting and analyzing tool marks in forensic investigations, as they can help identify the type of tool used and potentially link it to a suspect or crime scene.

Answer: C) (i) and (iii) are correct.

Explanation: The different dye constituents present in ink can be separated and analyzed using the following techniques: (i) TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography): TLC is a technique that separates and identifies the different components of a mixture, such as ink dyes, based on their differential migration rates on a stationary phase. (iii) Electrophoresis: This technique separates charged molecules, such as dyes, based on their differential migration rates in an electric field. It is commonly used to separate and analyze the dye components of inks. VSC (Video Spectral Comparator) and ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) are techniques used for document examination and visualization, but they are not typically used for separating dye constituents from ink.

Answer: B) Persecution

Explanation: Daniel M’Naghten, a Scottish woodturner, was suffering from a delusion of persecution when he attempted to assassinate the British Prime Minister in 1843. He believed that he was being persecuted by the Tory government and that the Prime Minister was personally involved in a conspiracy against him. This incident led to the establishment of the famous “M’Naghten rules” for determining legal insanity in criminal cases involving individuals with mental disorders.

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation: Gait analysis, or the examination of walking patterns, involves studying various features and characteristics of an individual’s gait. These features include: Direction line: The overall direction of travel. Foot angle: The angle at which the foot strikes the ground. Foot length: The length of the foot impressions. Step length: The distance between successive footprints of the same foot. Walking line: The line connecting the centers of successive footprints. Step breadth: The lateral distance between successive footprints. All of these features are analyzed to identify unique characteristics and potentially link gait patterns to individuals in forensic investigations.

Answer: C) Metaphysis

Explanation: The fusion of the diaphysis (the shaft of a long bone) and the epiphysis (the rounded end of a long bone) is called the metaphysis. It is the region where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet and eventually fuse as an individual reaches skeletal maturity. The metaphysis plays a crucial role in the growth and development of long bones during childhood and adolescence.

Answer: A) Subpubic angle

Explanation: The subpubic angle, also known as the subpubic concavity or ventral arc, is considered the best feature of the pelvis bone for accurate sex determination. This angle is formed by the inferior rami of the pubic bones and is generally wider and more obtuse in females (around 90 degrees or more) compared to males (around 50-60 degrees). This difference is primarily due to the adaptations for childbirth in females. The subpubic angle provides a reliable indicator of sex, particularly in adult skeletal remains.

Answer: A) 2 5 1 3

Explanation: The correct matching is as follows:
I. Gustafson Method – 2. Age from a tooth (The Gustafson method is used to estimate age from the development and eruption patterns of teeth)
II. Boyde’s Method – 5. Incremental lines (Boyde’s method involves the analysis of incremental lines in dental enamel for age estimation)
III. Haasis Rule – 1. Age from crown-heel length (The Haasis rule estimates age from the crown-heel length of fetal remains)
IV. Haderup System – 3. Charting of teeth (The Haderup system involves charting the characteristics of teeth for identification purposes)

Answer: B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Explanation: The assertion (A) that a stereoscopic microscope is used to determine the sequence of intersecting strokes in writing is true. Stereoscopic microscopes provide a three-dimensional view of the writing surface, allowing forensic document examiners to analyze the relative heights and overlapping patterns of intersecting strokes, which can reveal the sequence in which they were written. The reason (R) that a stereoscopic microscope enables the viewing of the thickness of strokes is also correct. The three-dimensional visualization provided by a stereoscopic microscope allows for the examination of the depth and thickness of writing strokes, which can provide valuable information about the writing instrument used and the writing process.