2004 December UGC-NET Previous Year Question paper

Correct Answer: (B) Methanol

Explanation: Methanol is highly toxic and can cause permanent blindness when metabolized in the human body. The key points are:

• Methanol is metabolized by the liver through the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which converts it into formaldehyde.
• The formaldehyde is then further metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase into formic acid.
• The formic acid is ultimately converted into folic acid, folinic acid, carbon dioxide, and water.
• However, the intermediate metabolites, particularly the formic acid, are highly toxic and can cause permanent optic nerve damage leading to blindness, even with ingestion of as little as 10 ml of pure methanol.

In contrast, ethanol (A), glycol (C), and propanol (D) do not have the same devastating effect on the visual system as methanol.

Correct Answer: (C) Shotgun

Explanation: The term “12 bore” refers specifically to the diameter or caliber of a shotgun barrel, not a rifle, pistol, or revolver.

• In the context of shotguns, the “bore” defines the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and the number “12” refers to the fact that a pound of lead can be divided into 12 equal-sized shotgun pellets that match the barrel’s diameter.
• Therefore, a 12 bore shotgun has a barrel diameter of approximately 0.729 inches, which is the equivalent of 1/12th of a pound of lead.
• This standardized bore size and ammunition is unique to shotguns and not used in other firearms like rifles (A), pistols (B), or revolvers (D).

So, the 12 bore cartridge is specifically fired from a shotgun.

Correct Answer: (A) RDX

Explanation: Detonators are a type of explosive device used to initiate or detonate other high explosives. The key points are:

• Detonators typically consist of a primary explosive, such as lead azide or mercury fulminate (B and D), which is used as the initiating charge.
• The primary explosive is then combined with a secondary explosive, usually PETN or RDX, which acts as the main detonating charge.
• RDX (Cyclotrimethylene trinitramine) is a powerful high explosive, but it is not a detonator itself. It is commonly used as the secondary explosive in detonator assemblies.
• Lead azide (C) and lead styphnate (D) are examples of primary explosives used in detonators.

Therefore, among the given options, RDX (A) is the correct answer as it is not a detonator but rather a high explosive used in the composition of detonators.

Correct Answer: (B) It is fragmented, continuous, or absent

Explanation: The medulla is the innermost layer of the hair shaft in human hair, and its appearance can vary:

• The medulla may be fragmented, meaning it appears as discontinuous segments along the hair shaft.
• The medulla can also be continuous, running uninterrupted through the entire length of the hair.
• In some cases, the medulla may be entirely absent, with just the cortex and cuticle layers present.

Therefore, the correct statement is that the medulla in human hair can be fragmented, continuous, or absent, but it is not always present (A) or always broader than the cortex (C). It is also not always absent (D).

Correct Answer: (A) As such

Explanation: Dried seminal stains on clothing do not require any special preservation techniques and can be preserved as they are, without the need for any additional treatments.

• Dried biological stains, such as semen, blood, or urine, can be directly collected and preserved on the clothing or other surfaces where they are found.
• There is no need to treat the dried seminal stains with formalin or any other preservatives (options B, C, and D).
• Preserving the stains in their dried state is the most effective way to maintain the integrity of the evidence for subsequent forensic analysis.

This approach applies to the majority of dried biological stains encountered in forensic investigations, where the samples can be collected and preserved as is, without any additional processing.

Correct Answer: (A) Cephalic index

Explanation: The cephalic index (CI) is a key metric used in forensic anthropology and physical anthropology to determine the racial or ethnic origins of an individual.

• The cephalic index is defined as the ratio of the maximum width of the head multiplied by 100 and divided by the maximum length of the head.
• Based on the cephalic index, individuals can be classified into different racial or ethnic categories:
  • Dolichocephalic (long-headed): CI 70 to 74.9 – Aryans, Aborigines, Negroes
  • Mesaticephalic (medium-headed): CI 75 to 79.9 – Europeans, Chinese
  • Brachycephalic (short-headed): CI 80 to 84.9 – Mongolian
• The other indices mentioned, such as the public index (B), dental index (C), and spinal index (D), are not directly related to the determination of racial or ethnic characteristics.

Therefore, the cephalic index is the correct method to determine the race of a person based on the given options.

Correct Answer: (C) Grievous injury

Explanation: According to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), a fracture of the terminal phalanx of the little finger is classified as a grievous injury. The definition of grievous hurt, as per Section 320 of the IPC, includes the following:

• Emasculation: Removal of male private parts
• Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
• Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
• Privation of any member or joint
• Destruction or permanent impairment of the powers of any member or joint
• Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
• Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
• Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain

Since the fracture of the terminal phalanx of the little finger involves the privation of a member or joint, it is classified as a grievous injury under the IPC. This is more severe than a simple injury (A), dangerous injury (B), or serious injury (D).

Correct Answer: (B) Capacity to dispose of property

Explanation: Testamentary capacity is a legal term that refers to a person’s mental ability to make or alter a valid will or dispose of their property.

• The term “testamentary” is derived from the word “testament,” which means a legal document expressing a person’s final wishes regarding the disposition of their property after death.
• Testamentary capacity is an important legal concept, as it ensures that the person making a will has the necessary mental competence to understand the nature and extent of their property, as well as the ability to make rational decisions about its distribution.
• This capacity is crucial in determining the validity and enforceability of a person’s will or other testamentary documents.

The other options, such as the capacity to dispose of material other than property (A), the capacity to learn language (C), and responsibility regarding criminal matters (D), are not directly related to the legal concept of testamentary capacity.

Correct Answer: (D) Common cold

Explanation: The following conditions can affect an individual’s handwriting:

• Parkinsonism: This neurological disorder can cause tremors, muscle stiffness, and impaired motor control, which can significantly alter the person’s handwriting.
• Senile dementia: Age-related cognitive decline and loss of intellectual abilities can impact the coordination and control required for consistent handwriting.
• Encephalitis: This inflammatory condition of the brain can lead to neurological impairments that may be reflected in changes to the person’s handwriting.

On the other hand, a common cold, which is a temporary viral infection, is not expected to have a significant impact on an individual’s handwriting. The common cold does not typically affect the motor control or cognitive functions necessary for maintaining consistent handwriting.

Correct Answer: (A) Plaster of Paris

Explanation: Plaster of Paris is the standard material used to lift and preserve foot or footwear prints at a crime scene.

• Plaster of Paris is a white powdery material that, when mixed with water, forms a moldable paste that can be poured over a print to create a cast.
• The cast captures the detailed three-dimensional impression of the print, which can then be used for comparison and analysis by forensic experts.
• Plaster of Paris is an effective and durable material for preserving fragile impression evidence, such as footprints or shoe impressions, at the crime scene.

The other options, such as ninhydrin powder (B), milk (C), and alcohol (D), are not commonly used for lifting and preserving foot or footwear prints in forensic investigations.

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation: The assertion and reason are both correct, and the reason provides a valid explanation for the assertion.

• Assertion (A): In cases of disputed paternity, blood groups and HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) testing can be used to exclude the possibility of paternity. This is a widely accepted forensic technique in paternity disputes.
• Reason (R): The appearance of blood groups and HLA in offspring is determined by the principles of Mendelian inheritance. Each parent contributes one allele for a particular blood group or HLA characteristic, and the offspring inherits a combination of these alleles. If the child’s blood group or HLA profile is incompatible with the alleged father’s, it can be used to exclude the possibility of paternity.

Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion.

Correct Answers: (3) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Explanation:

• Cartridges with pellets: These are specifically designed for shotguns which can fire a multitude of small projectiles in one shot to increase hit probability over a wider area.
• Rimmed cartridges with bullets: Characterized by the pronounced rim at the base of the cartridge, they are commonly associated with vintage and some contemporary rifle models, notably the .303 British rifles known for their historical military use.
• Rimless cartridges with bullets: This design is prevalent in modern firearms, particularly in semi-automatic pistols, as it allows for smoother feeding into the chamber from a magazine.
• .177 slugs: Utilized in air rifles and pistols for various purposes ranging from sport shooting to pest control, .177 caliber slugs are the standard in air gun projectiles, offering high velocity and accuracy.

Correct Answers: (3) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

Explanation: Understanding blood groups is critical for blood transfusions, organ transplants, and pregnancy care. Here’s a brief overview:

Blood group antigens are proteins and carbohydrates on the surface of red blood cells. Antibodies are the immune system’s response to antigens that are not recognized as self. People with blood group O have no antigens but have both antibodies, making them universal donors. In contrast, individuals with AB blood group have both antigens and no natural plasma antibodies, allowing them to receive red blood cells from any donor (universal recipients).

Correct Answers: (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Explanation:

• Anesthetic Agents: Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) is an ideal analytical method for volatile substances like anesthetic agents, which require the transformation from a liquid to a gas phase for effective separation and analysis.
• Alkaloids: The Soxhlet extractor, a piece of classic laboratory equipment named after its creator, Franz von Soxhlet, is especially useful for continuous extraction of organic compounds, such as alkaloids, from solid materials.
• Tranquilisers: High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is an advanced technique that allows for the precise separation and quantification of complex organic molecules, making it perfect for analyzing tranquilizers.
• Heavy Metals: Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) is a technique that quantifies the absorption of light to measure the concentration of gas-phase atoms, providing a reliable method for heavy metal detection. Neutron Activation Analysis (NAA), on the other hand, offers a highly sensitive and accurate method to detect and quantitatively measure the elements in samples through nuclear reaction.

Correct Answers: (C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Explanation: The eruption of permanent teeth is a critical developmental milestone in dental health. Here is the typical age of eruption for each:

• First Molar: Generally, the first molars appear around the age of 6 years, setting the foundation for the permanent dentition by establishing the back of the dental arch.
• Third Molar: Commonly known as wisdom teeth, third molars usually emerge much later, around the age of 18 years or even into early adulthood, and are often subject to extraction due to space limitations or alignment issues.
• Canine: The canines, positioned at the ‘corner’ of the dental arch, typically erupt by the age of 11 to 12 years, playing a key role in the development of a functional bite and the aesthetics of the smile.
• Second Molar: Following the first molars, second molars usually make their appearance around the age of 12 years, completing the set of molars necessary for efficient chewing and grinding of food.

Correct Answers: (A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Explanation: Each exhibit in forensic science is analyzed by a specialized division, suited to its nature:

• Firearm: Analyzed by the Ballistics Division, which specializes in the study of projectiles and firearms, including the examination of bullet trajectories, firearm operations, and gunshot residues.
• Hair: Examined by the Biology Division, where experts use biological knowledge to analyze biological materials like hair, which can provide DNA evidence and other biological markers.
• Disputed signature: The Documents Division is responsible for examining questioned documents, including signatures, to verify their authenticity and detect any signs of forgery or alteration.
• Poison: Analyzed by the Toxicology Division, which uses chemical analysis to detect and identify toxic substances in various matrices, an essential aspect in cases of poisoning or substance abuse.

Correct Answers: (B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Explanation: The analysis of marks and the instruments that cause them is a fundamental aspect of forensic science, aiding in the reconstruction of events:

• Sliding Marks: Typically produced by tools such as screwdrivers which can slip or slide across a surface, leaving behind characteristic scrape marks.
• Static Marks: These are often created by hammers when they impact a surface without sliding, leaving a distinct, localized impression.
• Radial cracks: Usually formed when a bullet impacts and penetrates a rigid surface, radiating outwards from the point of impact.
• Tyre Marks: Left by vehicles, these marks can indicate the direction of travel and are often analyzed in traffic accident reconstruction.

Correct Answers: (A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

Explanation: The establishment years of the Central Forensic Science Laboratories (CFSLs) in India are significant as they reflect the evolution of forensic science within the country:

• CFSL, Kolkata: Established in 1957, it is one of the oldest forensic labs in India, providing critical support to law enforcement with advanced analytical techniques.
• CFSL, Chandigarh: Founded in 1968, this lab specializes in high-quality forensic investigations in the northern region of India.
• CFSL, Delhi: Starting operations in 1978, it has played a pivotal role in the capital city, often handling high-profile cases.
• CFSL, Hyderabad: Opened in 1970, this lab serves as a crucial institution for forensic analysis in the southern part of India.

Correct Answers: (A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Explanation: The Indian Penal Code (IPC) classifies various offences and prescribes punishments for them. Here’s how they match:

• Murder: Section 302 IPC deals with murder and prescribes the punishment for this grave offence.
• Fatal Vehicular Accident: Typically covered under Section 304-A IPC, which pertains to causing death by negligence, including rash or negligent driving.
• Rape: A heinous offence, is covered under Section 375 IPC, defining the offence and its stringent punishment.
• Attempt to Murder: Section 307 IPC is concerned with the attempt to murder, specifying the intent without the actual commission of murder.