Question 1: In forensic anthropology, which measurement is most reliable in determining sex from a skull?
- A. Interorbital width
- B. Mastoid process size
- C. Nasal height
- D. Sagittal suture length
Answer
Answer: B. Mastoid process size
Explanation: The mastoid process is typically larger and more pronounced in males. It serves as one of the most sexually dimorphic features in cranial assessment.
Question 2: Which chemical method can differentiate between semen and other protein-containing body fluids?
- A. Benzidine test
- B. Acid phosphatase test
- C. Takayama test
- D. Luminol test
Answer
Answer: B. Acid phosphatase test
Explanation: The acid phosphatase enzyme is found in high concentration in semen, helping distinguish it from other bodily fluids like saliva or sweat.
Question 3: What aspect of handwriting is least likely to change under conscious control?
- A. Letter height
- B. Writing slant
- C. Pen lifts
- D. Line quality
Answer
Answer: C. Pen lifts
Explanation: Pen lifts and connecting strokes are often subconscious and difficult to imitate or alter, making them reliable features in handwriting comparison.
Question 4: In forensic toxicology, which metabolite is used to confirm heroin use?
- A. Codeine
- B. Morphine
- C. 6-Monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM)
- D. Thebaine
Answer
Answer: C. 6-Monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM)
Explanation: 6-MAM is a unique intermediate metabolite of heroin and is not found in users of other opiates, making it a definitive marker of heroin ingestion.
Question 5: In a forensic DNA mixture, the presence of more than two alleles at a locus indicates:
- A. Degraded DNA
- B. PCR contamination
- C. Multiple contributors
- D. Homozygosity
Answer
Answer: C. Multiple contributors
Explanation: More than two alleles at a single locus suggest the DNA sample originates from more than one person, necessitating mixture interpretation strategies.
Question 6: Which pattern of bloodstain suggests repeated blows to a wet surface with a blunt object?
- A. Passive stains
- B. Transfer patterns
- C. Cast-off stains
- D. Impact spatter
Answer
Answer: D. Impact spatter
Explanation: Repeated blunt force blows cause blood to radiate outward in a radial pattern, producing fine impact spatters around the point of contact.
Question 7: In digital forensics, the term “slack space” refers to:
- A. Unused sectors of a hard drive
- B. Encrypted partitions
- C. Space between the end of a file and end of a cluster
- D. Virtual memory allocation
Answer
Answer: C. Space between the end of a file and end of a cluster
Explanation: Slack space can contain remnants of previously deleted files or fragments, which may be valuable in digital evidence recovery.
Question 8: What is the significance of breechface marks in firearms examination?
- A. They indicate the direction of bullet rotation
- B. They are unique to each cartridge type
- C. They help identify the firearm used by matching markings on the cartridge case
- D. They determine caliber of ammunition
Answer
Answer: C. They help identify the firearm used by matching markings on the cartridge case
Explanation: Breechface marks are impressed onto the primer or base of a cartridge case when the firearm is fired and can be compared microscopically for firearm identification.
Question 9: Which of the following bones provides the most accurate stature estimation in forensic anthropology?
- A. Humerus
- B. Radius
- C. Femur
- D. Tibia
Answer
Answer: C. Femur
Explanation: The femur, being the longest and strongest bone in the human body, has a well-established correlation with overall height, making it ideal for stature estimation.
Question 10: Which of the following is not a presumptive test for blood?
- A. Kastle-Meyer test
- B. Luminol test
- C. Teichmann test
- D. Hemastix
Answer
Answer: C. Teichmann test
Explanation: The Teichmann test is a confirmatory microcrystal test for blood, not a presumptive one. Presumptive tests suggest presence, while confirmatory tests prove it.
Question 11: Which type of fire debris sample is most likely to retain ignitable residues for arson analysis?
- A. Charred wood
- B. Water-soaked fabric
- C. Painted metal
- D. Glass fragments
Answer
Answer: A. Charred wood
Explanation: Porous and absorbent materials like charred wood can trap and retain ignitable liquid residues, making them valuable in fire debris analysis using GC-MS.
Question 12: Which type of evidence is most susceptible to contamination due to touch DNA?
- A. Bloodstained cloth
- B. Bullet casing
- C. Semen-stained swab
- D. Burnt bones
Answer
Answer: B. Bullet casing
Explanation: Touch DNA evidence, such as skin cells from handling, is often present in trace amounts on objects like bullet casings, making them highly prone to contamination if not properly handled.
Question 13: In forensic entomology, which factor most influences the developmental rate of blowfly larvae?
- A. Color of the corpse
- B. Season of the year
- C. Ambient temperature
- D. Geographic latitude
Answer
Answer: C. Ambient temperature
Explanation: The rate of insect development is temperature-dependent; higher temperatures accelerate larval development, making temperature a critical factor for postmortem interval estimation.
Question 14: In ink analysis of questioned documents, which technique helps identify ink components even after aging?
- A. Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
- B. Gas Chromatography
- C. Raman Spectroscopy
- D. UV-visible spectrophotometry
Answer
Answer: C. Raman Spectroscopy
Explanation: Raman spectroscopy is non-destructive, highly specific, and suitable for detecting organic and inorganic components of aged ink without sample extraction.
Question 15: In forensic ballistics, what does the presence of stellate tearing around an entrance wound typically indicate?
- A. Distant-range gunshot
- B. Contact shot over bone
- C. Ricocheted bullet impact
- D. Shotgun discharge
Answer
Answer: B. Contact shot over bone
Explanation: Stellate tearing is caused by gases expanding beneath the skin during a close-contact gunshot, especially over hard surfaces like skulls, producing star-shaped lacerations.
Question 16: Which gene is most commonly targeted for sex determination in forensic DNA profiling?
- A. SRY gene on Y chromosome
- B. Amelogenin gene
- C. D13S317
- D. TPOX gene
Answer
Answer: B. Amelogenin gene
Explanation: The amelogenin gene has length polymorphisms on the X and Y chromosomes, making it a reliable marker for determining biological sex in forensic DNA analysis.
Question 17: What is the primary utility of the McCrone method in forensic analysis?
- A. Identification of drug residues
- B. Firearm discharge analysis
- C. Polarized light microscopy of fibers
- D. Ink age estimation
Answer
Answer: C. Polarized light microscopy of fibers
Explanation: The McCrone method involves detailed examination of micro-evidence, such as synthetic or natural fibers, using polarized light microscopy for identification and comparison.
Question 18: In forensic odontology, the Gustafson method is used for:
- A. Determining sex based on dental arch
- B. Age estimation in adults using tooth wear
- C. Identification from bite marks
- D. Analyzing dental fluorosis
Answer
Answer: B. Age estimation in adults using tooth wear
Explanation: The Gustafson method relies on physiological changes such as secondary dentin deposition, root resorption, and attrition to estimate age in adult teeth.
Question 19: Which forensic method is most effective in confirming species origin of biological evidence?
- A. Immunodiffusion test
- B. ABO blood grouping
- C. Precipitin test
- D. Electrophoresis
Answer
Answer: C. Precipitin test
Explanation: The precipitin test detects species-specific antigens using antisera and is effective in determining whether a sample is human or animal in origin.
Question 20: Which software tool is most appropriate for analyzing deleted files in a forensic disk image?
- A. FTK Imager
- B. Autopsy (Sleuth Kit)
- C. Cellebrite UFED
- D. Wireshark
Answer
Answer: B. Autopsy (Sleuth Kit)
Explanation: Autopsy is a GUI-based tool built on the Sleuth Kit framework, widely used for recovering and analyzing deleted files and disk structures during digital investigations.
Question 21: Which test would best differentiate between synthetic and natural fibers in forensic analysis?
- A. Acid digestion test
- B. Refractive index comparison
- C. Burn test with odor observation
- D. Cross-sectional microscopy
Answer
Answer: C. Burn test with odor observation
Explanation: The burn test helps differentiate fibers based on their burning behavior and odor—natural fibers like cotton smell like burning paper, while synthetics may melt and emit chemical odors.
Question 22: In forensic anthropology, which bone feature provides the highest accuracy for sex estimation in adults?
- A. Femoral head diameter
- B. Pubic symphysis morphology
- C. Mandibular angle
- D. Nasal aperture width
Answer
Answer: B. Pubic symphysis morphology
Explanation: The pelvis, particularly the pubic symphysis, offers the most reliable morphological indicators for determining sex due to pronounced differences between male and female anatomy.
Question 23: Which of the following best explains why LC-QTOF-MS is preferred in non-targeted toxicological screening?
- A. It has better resolution than GC-FID
- B. It enables compound separation without chromatography
- C. It allows for exact mass measurement of unknowns
- D. It avoids the need for sample extraction
Answer
Answer: C. It allows for exact mass measurement of unknowns
Explanation: LC-QTOF-MS (Quadrupole Time-of-Flight) allows for high-resolution, accurate mass detection, ideal for identifying unknown or emerging toxicants without pre-selection.
Question 24: What does a high number of alleles with low frequencies at an STR locus indicate in forensic genetics?
- A. Low discrimination power
- B. Presence of null alleles
- C. High polymorphism and individualization potential
- D. Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium
Answer
Answer: C. High polymorphism and individualization potential
Explanation: A large number of rare alleles increases the power of discrimination at an STR locus, enhancing its utility for individual identification in forensic DNA profiling.
Question 25: Which forensic principle is best demonstrated when a criminal leaves a partial footprint at a crime scene?
- A. Principle of exchange
- B. Principle of individuality
- C. Principle of probability
- D. Principle of reconstruction
Answer
Answer: A. Principle of exchange
Explanation: Locard’s Exchange Principle states that contact between two surfaces will result in a mutual transfer of trace evidence, such as partial footprints or fibers.
Question 26: Which radiological method is most effective in identifying metallic foreign objects embedded in skeletal remains?
- A. MRI scan
- B. CT scan
- C. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
- D. Infrared thermography
Answer
Answer: B. CT scan
Explanation: CT scanning provides high-resolution, 3D visualization of internal structures and is highly effective in detecting and localizing metallic foreign objects in bones.
Question 27: In digital forensics, the primary reason for performing a hash verification after data acquisition is:
- A. To analyze malware activity
- B. To compress the forensic image
- C. To validate data integrity
- D. To create encryption keys
Answer
Answer: C. To validate data integrity
Explanation: Hash values (e.g., MD5, SHA-256) are used to ensure that the data acquired during forensic imaging remains unchanged throughout analysis and is admissible in court.
Question 28: Which property of glass is most relevant when performing refractive index matching during forensic comparison?
- A. Optical clarity
- B. Thermal conductivity
- C. Density
- D. Dispersion
Answer
Answer: D. Dispersion
Explanation: Dispersion affects how glass interacts with light across different wavelengths, influencing its refractive index. Matching dispersion curves can help differentiate similar glass types.
Question 29: What is the primary role of ICP-MS in forensic elemental analysis?
- A. To detect volatile organic compounds
- B. To determine mineralogical structure
- C. To quantify trace elements with high sensitivity
- D. To image latent fingerprints
Answer
Answer: C. To quantify trace elements with high sensitivity
Explanation: Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS) is capable of detecting ultra-trace levels of metals and other elements, making it ideal for forensic soil, glass, and toxicological analysis.
Question 30: In forensic serology, a false negative result in a presumptive test for blood may occur due to:
- A. High salt concentration
- B. Presence of oxidizing agents
- C. Diluted sample
- D. Presence of hemoglobin variants
Answer
Answer: C. Diluted sample
Explanation: A highly diluted bloodstain may contain insufficient hemoglobin to produce a detectable color change in presumptive tests like Kastle-Meyer, resulting in false negatives.
Question 31: Which forensic imaging technique provides a non-invasive way to visualize ink differences in altered documents?
- A. UV fluorescence imaging
- B. Infrared reflectography
- C. X-ray fluorescence
- D. Raman microscopy
Answer
Answer: B. Infrared reflectography
Explanation: Infrared reflectography allows for differentiation of ink types based on their absorption and reflectance in the IR region, making it useful for detecting alterations or obliterations in documents.
Question 32: Which of the following is the most specific confirmatory test for identifying cocaine in a seized powder?
- A. Duquenois-Levine test
- B. Gas Chromatography with Flame Ionization Detector (GC-FID)
- C. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
- D. Marquis reagent test
Answer
Answer: C. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
Explanation: GC-MS provides both separation and structural identification of compounds, making it the gold standard confirmatory test for controlled substances like cocaine.
Question 33: In forensic pathology, the presence of frothy fluid in the airways is most indicative of:
- A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Drowning
- D. Asphyxiation by smothering
Answer
Answer: C. Drowning
Explanation: Frothy fluid in the lungs and airways is a classical sign of drowning due to the mixing of water and surfactant in the lungs, forming stable foam.
Question 34: In forensic linguistics, idiolect refers to:
- A. The regional language variety of a speaker
- B. A speaker’s unique and individual language use
- C. Slang terms used in criminal communication
- D. Dialect shared by a group
Answer
Answer: B. A speaker’s unique and individual language use
Explanation: An idiolect is the personal language style of an individual, encompassing vocabulary, syntax, and grammar patterns, which can assist in author identification in forensic cases.
Question 35: In forensic psychology, the M’Naghten rule is primarily used to assess:
- A. Competency to stand trial
- B. Mental illness classification
- C. Criminal responsibility based on insanity
- D. Reliability of eyewitness memory
Answer
Answer: C. Criminal responsibility based on insanity
Explanation: The M’Naghten rule evaluates whether a defendant understood the nature or wrongfulness of their actions due to mental illness, forming a legal standard for insanity.
Question 36: The formation of an adipocere (grave wax) body is promoted under which conditions?
- A. Dry, hot, and ventilated
- B. Cold and open-air exposure
- C. Moist, anaerobic, and sealed environments
- D. Rapid desiccation and exposure to sunlight
Answer
Answer: C. Moist, anaerobic, and sealed environments
Explanation: Adipocere forms through hydrolysis of fat tissues in moist, oxygen-poor environments, commonly seen in submerged or buried bodies.
Question 37: Which latent fingerprint development method is best suited for wet, non-porous surfaces?
- A. Ninhydrin
- B. Silver nitrate
- C. Small particle reagent (SPR)
- D. Iodine fuming
Answer
Answer: C. Small particle reagent (SPR)
Explanation: SPR is used on wet, non-porous surfaces and adheres to the fatty components of fingerprint residue, making it ideal for submerged items.
Question 38: The firing pin impression on a cartridge primer is most useful for:
- A. Determining bullet trajectory
- B. Caliber classification
- C. Linking cartridge to a specific firearm
- D. Estimating range of fire
Answer
Answer: C. Linking cartridge to a specific firearm
Explanation: Toolmarks left by a firing pin are unique and can be matched to a firearm’s breech face and firing mechanism using comparison microscopy.
Question 39: Which of the following bones is most commonly used to assess stature in forensic anthropology?
- A. Humerus
- B. Radius
- C. Femur
- D. Clavicle
Answer
Answer: C. Femur
Explanation: The femur is the longest bone in the human body and has well-established regression formulas for estimating stature in forensic analysis.
Question 40: In forensic DNA interpretation, what is a “stochastic effect” most commonly associated with?
- A. Population substructure errors
- B. Allele dropout in low-template DNA
- C. Contamination from handlers
- D. Degradation from environmental exposure
Answer
Answer: B. Allele dropout in low-template DNA
Explanation: Stochastic effects refer to random variations during PCR amplification, often leading to allele dropout or imbalance in low-template DNA samples.
Question 41: What is the most reliable technique for analyzing handwriting pressure patterns?
- A. Video spectral comparator
- B. Electrostatic detection apparatus (ESDA)
- C. Infrared luminescence
- D. Thin layer chromatography
Answer
Answer: B. Electrostatic detection apparatus (ESDA)
Explanation: ESDA is used to detect indented writing and pressure patterns on documents, which can reveal underlying impressions even after the original text is removed.
Question 42: In bloodstain pattern analysis, which pattern is typically associated with arterial spurting?
- A. Passive drops
- B. Transfer stains
- C. Expirated blood patterns
- D. Projected spurts with pulsatile flow
Answer
Answer: D. Projected spurts with pulsatile flow
Explanation: Arterial spurting results in a projected pattern with a pulsatile appearance due to the pressure of the heartbeat pushing blood from a breached artery.
Question 43: Which type of evidence is most suitable for analysis using mitochondrial DNA?
- A. Saliva on envelopes
- B. Semen stains on fabric
- C. Shed hair shafts without roots
- D. Fingernail scrapings with blood
Answer
Answer: C. Shed hair shafts without roots
Explanation: Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is useful when nuclear DNA is degraded or absent, such as in hair shafts, bones, and teeth, where nuclear DNA may not be present.
Question 44: In forensic ballistics, rifling in a firearm barrel is used to:
- A. Reduce the recoil of the firearm
- B. Identify bullet type through composition
- C. Stabilize the bullet in flight via spin
- D. Increase the bullet’s velocity
Answer
Answer: C. Stabilize the bullet in flight via spin
Explanation: Rifling imparts a spin to the bullet, increasing its stability and accuracy. The lands and grooves also leave unique markings for forensic comparison.
Question 45: Which enzyme is targeted in the forensic identification of semen using the acid phosphatase test?
- A. Amylase
- B. Peroxidase
- C. Acid phosphatase
- D. Catalase
Answer
Answer: C. Acid phosphatase
Explanation: Acid phosphatase is present at high levels in seminal fluid and serves as a reliable marker in presumptive tests for semen.
Question 46: In forensic entomology, the developmental stage of which insect is most useful for estimating the postmortem interval (PMI) during early decomposition?
- A. Dermestid beetle larvae
- B. Adult blowflies
- C. Blowfly maggots (larvae)
- D. Ants and cockroaches
Answer
Answer: C. Blowfly maggots (larvae)
Explanation: Blowfly larvae colonize a body quickly after death. Their development stages can be used to estimate the PMI during the early phases of decomposition.
Question 47: Which of the following techniques is most effective in distinguishing inks that appear identical under visible light?
- A. Gas chromatography
- B. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
- C. X-ray diffraction
- D. Neutron activation analysis
Answer
Answer: B. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
Explanation: TLC is widely used to separate ink components, helping distinguish visually similar inks based on their chemical makeup and mobility on the TLC plate.
Question 48: What is the term for the chemical enhancement technique used to visualize bloody footprints?
- A. Leuco crystal violet (LCV)
- B. Ninhydrin
- C. Fluorescein
- D. Acid fuchsin
Answer
Answer: A. Leuco crystal violet (LCV)
Explanation: LCV reacts with the heme in blood to produce a violet-colored product, making it useful for visualizing bloody impressions like footprints or fingerprints on porous surfaces.
Question 49: Which concept in forensic statistics is applied to determine the significance of a DNA match in a population?
- A. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
- B. Likelihood ratio
- C. Chi-square test
- D. T-test for means
Answer
Answer: B. Likelihood ratio
Explanation: The likelihood ratio compares the probability of observing the DNA evidence under two competing hypotheses, aiding in the statistical interpretation of forensic DNA matches.
Question 50: In digital image forensics, the analysis of JPEG quantization tables can help in:
- A. Identifying image resolution
- B. Tracing the camera model
- C. Detecting tampering or image editing
- D. Enhancing contrast of the image
Answer
Answer: C. Detecting tampering or image editing
Explanation: JPEG quantization table analysis can reveal inconsistencies in compression artifacts, suggesting splicing or manipulation in a digital image.